Tag: Clinical-Nursing

  • Professional Liability for APNs essay

    Professional Liability for APNs

    In the above writings, I agree that organizations have the responsibility of information their providers on how to identify and minimize risks associated with professional liability. Any healthcare organization should guide its employees on risk management and educate them about risk-related issues. Nurse practitioners should be provided with continuing education in the assessment of risks and risk minimization regularly.   When nurse practitioners understand the potential liability risks, they will be able to prevent or mitigate these risks. Research and collection of data related to nursing malpractice liability should go on being published to increase nurse practitioner’s knowledge concerning malpractice and professional liability (NAPNAP, 2015).

    The issue I would like to add to enhance the conversation is the importance of employers providing liability insurance for their staff and strategies that a nurse practitioner can use to reduce the risk for professional liability. According to NAPNAP (2015), liability insurance safeguards providers of health care as well as their clients. Even though the employer might provide coverage for malpractice insurance, it might not entirely safeguard the individual nurse practitioners of their license. Therefore, nurse practitioners must analyze the coverage provided by the employer to establish whether having individual malpractice is necessary.  Nurse practitioners have the obligation of understanding of malpractice risks within their work setting and have an awareness of the form of coverage paid for employer- provided insurance.

    Stewart and DeNisco (2018) indicate that while a nurse practitioner may be covered by the malpractice program of his or her employer, it behooves the nurse practitioner to have personal malpractice insurance to avert an employer’s conflict of insurance. Also, the nurse practitioner can lessen the risk of professional liability by maintaining present clinical knowledge and skills, clearly documenting all treatments and carefully evaluating how a patient responds to treatment.

     

    References

    National Association of Pediatric Nurse Practitioners (NAPNAP). (2015). Position Statement on Malpractice Insurance for Nurse Practitioners.,
    Journal of Pediatric Health Care, 29
    (4), A11-A12.

    Stewart, J., &  DeNisco, S. (2018).
    Role Development for the Nurse Practitioner
    . Burlington, MA: Jones & Bartlett Learning.

     

     

    How your organization should identify and minimize the potential risks regarding professional liability for APNs?

    Discuss specific strategies or actions the APN can utilize to ensure effective risk management.

    Discuss how APNs will maintain standards of care to as they practice throughout your organization.

    Hi All,

    As we focus on potential risks and liabilities for our providers, it is important to outline these risks for our nurse practitioners. As with any providers, increased responsibility also brings more associated risks (Pearce, 2016). As mistakes occur it is important that our providers are informed, ready, and supported. A way to do this is by preparing and understanding potential risks. These risks include the following: possible clinical errors, malpractice, negative public view towards nurse practitioners, potential HIPAA violations or exposing confidential information, not informing patients, and additional direct practice risks (Buppert, 2018).

    By ensuring our providers are aware of associated risks helps minimize potential risks. These risks can have anything to do with quality of care to the patients individual view of care or of the provider themselves (Buppert, 2018). Therefore, our company puts strain on keeping up with clinical professional appearance including physical as well as maintaining a positive reputation. Maintaining up to date clinical practice and utilizing those current practices in day to day care. Ensure our NP’s understand the importance of having personal insurance. Keeping NP’s aware of HIPAA laws and potential violations (Pearce, 2016).

    In order for our company to help support our providers, it is important that we provide them with content to continue to be successful and minimize potential liability risks. This include educational content, providing up to date information to serve as educational documents as well as giving a consistent reference to standards of care. These standards are especially important to keep clear and intact for our company, especially in the case of any possible malpractice lawsuits (Norful, de Jacq, Carlino & Poghosyan, 2018).

    In the above writings what do you agree with how they answered the questions and what would you add to enhance the conversation regarding the above question.. this is a discussion question

  • advanced registered nurse scope of practice essay

    advanced registered nurse scope of practice essay

    Scope of practice

    Part 1. A discussion of the scope of your future role as an advanced registered nurse, including any regulatory, certification, or accreditation agencies that define that scope.

    My motivation for gaining an advanced registered nurse qualification is to become an educator who prepares the next crop of nurses for practice. I expect that being a nurse educator will allow me to engage individuals aspiring to become nurses in a formal education process where I will impart professional nursing skills and concepts. I anticipate that being an educator is a specialty role for advanced registered nurses since it deviates from the traditional role of nurses to engage patients in providing primary care, and instead move towards preparing future nurses for practice (Grinspun & Bajnok, 2018) advanced registered nurse scope of practice essay.

    I anticipate that my ability to practice as a nurse educator will be determined by four elements. The first element is the regulatory requirements. Like any other education program, nursing programs are managed by professional bodies that determine if the educators are qualified to prepare students at the level of education. This includes having the right accreditation and certification that is recognized by the relevant authorities, and considered as an indication of qualification as an educator. The second element is educational background. A higher level of education is typically preferred since it is indicative of professional proficiency and knowledge, as well as familiarity with important concepts that influence practice. It is not uncommon for educators to be engaged in research activities and to be authorities who have published materials. Successfully completing education courses are also preferred since this is an indication of an understanding of how to educate others having understood the different education theories and what learners require (Cherry & Jacobs, 2013).

    The third element is the work conditions. Good earning potential and work conditions can be good motivators for taking on the role of an educator. For instance, a tenured position would be preferable over a non-tenured position since it offers greater job security, autonomy and permanency that reduces work-related stress. The final element is the educator responsibilities and roles. This element influences practice as an educator through matching capabilities to expectations such as advising students, teaching, practicing as a nurse, and conducting research advanced registered nurse scope of practice essay. Each education institution has unique expectations of its faculty members, and these expectations must be matched to capabilities (Milstead & Short, 2019).

    There are two agencies that define the scope of practice for advanced registered nurses who take on the role of educators. The first agency is the National League for Nursing (NLN) that offers accreditation services for nurse educators across the USA. The agency exercises its accreditation authority through the Commission for Nursing Education Accreditation (CNEA), as a branch of NLN whose singular responsibility is to accredit nurse educators with a focus on ensuring that education services focus on the core values of excellence, caring, diversity and integrity. The second agency that defines the scope of practice for nurse educators is the National Commission for Certifying Agencies (NCCA). This is a national agency that offers certification to nurse educators. It draws its authority from the National Organization for Competency Assurance (NOCA). The NCCA has the primary responsibility of certifying nurse educators using the most current practice standards, a responsibility that it fulfils through regularly updating its certification requirements and ensuring that nurse educators meet the requirements before being permitted to practice.

    There are two certification programs that define the scope of practice for nurse educators. Firstly, the certified nurse education program enables nurse educators to facilitate learning activities in nurse education facilities. Some of the activities that the program permits educators to engage in include curriculum design, as well as teaching, advising and evaluating nursing students advanced registered nurse scope of practice essay. Secondly, the certified nurse educator program enables nurse educators to facilitate the clinical components of nurse learning activities (Black, 2016).

    Part 2. A discussion of three professional nursing organizations that you think are most influential in advancing the scope and influence of advanced nursing.

    The three professional nursing organizations that are most influential in advancing the scope and influence of advanced nursing are the NLN, American Association for Colleges of Nursing (AACN) and Organization for Associate Degree Nursing (OADN). The first organization is the NLN that draws members from among nurses and focuses on ensuring that nursing excellence is not compromised. It achieves this by facilitating professional development among advanced registered nurses. This occurs through managing testing services, research grants and teaching resources for its members. Besides that, the NLN has a direct influence on the scope of nurse educators through managing their qualifications for practice and credentialing (National League of Nursing, 2020). The second organization is the AACN, the national agency whose primary responsibility is to improve the quality of nurse academics advanced registered nurse scope of practice essay. It does this by promoting advanced nursing practice, research and education. This agency focuses on improving health care in general and nursing care delivery in particular through establishing the quality standards for nursing education, In addition, it aids the nursing education institutions to implement these standards. Besides that, it supports professional nursing practice (American Association for Colleges of Nursing, 2020). The third organization is the OADN, the national agency that represents advanced registered nurses and advocates for their interests. It draws its members from among nurses who have associate degree nursing qualifications. The agency’s primary responsibility is to promote an idealized future for advanced registered nurses while enhancing the quality of their education and strengthening their professional roles. Additionally, the agency presents a platform for unifying nurse professionals through supporting networking opportunities and disseminating information even as it partners with other organizations (Organization for Associate Degree Nursing, 2020).

    Concerning the three organizations (NLN, AACN and OADN), perhaps the most important organization is the NLN. It is the oldest nurses’ organization in the USA since it was formed in 1893. It has the most number of members and has much influence. It has 37,000 individual members and 1,200 institutions. The organization focuses on promoting nursing education excellence as its primary mission advanced registered nurse scope of practice essay. It does this through building a diverse and strong nursing workforce with the capacity to advance the health agenda at the global and national levels (National League of Nursing, 2020). NLN is distinctive from the AACN and OADN since it draws members from across the world while the two are restricted to drawing members from the USA. Besides that, the members of NLN are not restricted to any single group and include health care organizations, education organizations, the public, nurse practitioners, and nurse educators. As a member of NLN, I expect to be exposed to nurse diversity since I will have access to a global network of nurses. Additionally, NLN members have access to assessment and testing services, research grants, networking opportunities and development programs that help with professional growth and development. In its long history of existence, the NLN has always remained current by revising its objectives and operations, and continuously renewing itself. These measures ensure that the organization remains relevant with regards to improving, enhancing and expanding the provision of nursing services while supporting efforts to deliver high quality nursing education (National League of Nursing, 2020).

    The NLN is aligned with my worldview and philosophy of care. All through its long history, the organization has continuously evolved to remain relevant advanced registered nurse scope of practice essay. I believe that nursing is an evolving profession and there is always room for improvement. As such, I am always open to new knowledge and experiences. Through having access to a large network of nurses and other stakeholders, I am able to engage in discussions, discover new knowledge and contribute to practice changes so that I experience professional growth even as the profession matures. In addition, the organization offers research and education opportunities along with access to current evidence that enhance my practice. As a result, the organization presents many resources that nurses can use to improve professional skills, knowledge and practice advanced registered nurse scope of practice essay.

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    Part 3. A discussion of a controversial or evolving issue that is most likely to affect your scope of practice or role in the next few years.

    Nurses play an important role in health care delivery. Although nursing is typically a rewarding career, particularly for those whose primary focus is on providing care, challenges abound to make it a demanding profession. One of the most controversial issues that nurses face is that they are underpaid and overworked. In fact, many nurses feel that their pay rates are low when considering their duties and responsibilities. The pressure is heightened by the fact that medical organizations are forced to comply with industry regulations and standards around nurse-to-patient ratios. This has created a situation in which nurses either find themselves single-handedly doing the work of two nurses or working for longer than they are supposed to work. The issue also places the health of nurses at risk. This controversial issue has had the inevitable distinction of causing high turnover rates among nurses and low recruitment rates so that nurse number populations remain low. The nurse populations are likely to remain low and the available nurses being overworked unless the pay rate and working hours can be improved (Huff, Kline & Peterson, 2015) advanced registered nurse scope of practice essay.

    References

    Accreditation Commission for Education in Nursing (2020).
    Home
    . Retrieved from https://www.acenursing.org/

    American Association for Colleges of Nursing (2020).
    About AACN
    . Retrieved from https://www.aacnnursing.org/About-AACN

    National League of Nursing (2020).
    About
    . Retrieved from http://www.nln.org/about

    Organization for Associate Degree Nursing (2020).
    About OADN
    . Retrieved from https://www.oadn.org/about-us/about-oadn

    Black, B. (2016).
    Professional nursing-e-book: concepts & challenges
    . New York, NY: Elsevier Health Sciences.

    Grinspun, D. & Bajnok, I. (2018).
    Transforming nursing through knowledge: best practices for guideline development, implementation science, and evaluation
    . Indianapolis, IN: Sigma Theta Tau International.

    Cherry, B. & Jacob, S. (2013).
    Contemporary nursing, issues, trends, & management
    (6
    th
    ed.). Amsterdam: Elsevier Health Sciences.

    Huff, R., Kline, M. & Peterson, D. (2015).
    Health promotion in multicultural populations: a handbook for practitioners and students
    (3
    rd
    ed.). Thousand Oaks, CA: SAGE Publications, Inc.

    Stanhope, M. & Lancaster, J. (2014).
    Public health nursing: population-centered health care in the community
    (8
    th
    ed.). Maryland Heights, MO: Elsevier/Mosby.

    Milstead, J. & Short, N. (2019).
    Health policy and politics: a nurse’s guide
    (6
    th
    ed.). Burlington, MA: Jones & Bartlett Learning.

     

    Advanced registered nursing graduates are entering the profession at dynamic time when roles and scope of practice are shifting based on developments in legislation and policy in response to the evolving needs of the health care system. Professional nursing organizations play an important role in making sure the perspectives of advanced registered nurses are heard, and in supporting nurse specialties in their efforts to expand their scope of practice and their full participation throughout the health care system advanced registered nurse scope of practice essay.

    For this assignment, you will conduct research on the current scope of practice for your specialty and efforts that are being made to expand that scope and the role of the advanced nurse in positively influencing the health care system. Write a 1,250-1,500-word paper that includes the following:

    A discussion of the scope of your future role as an advanced registered nurse, including any regulatory, certification, or accreditation agencies that define that scope.

    A discussion of three professional nursing organizations that you think are most influential in advancing the scope and influence of advanced nursing. Of these organizations, evaluate the one that you would most like to join. How do its goals and mission fit in with your worldview and philosophy of care? How might membership in this organization improve your practice?

    A discussion of a controversial or evolving issue that is most likely to affect your scope of practice or role in the next few years. How do you think this issue could influence the profession and other stakeholders, and why does it matters to the advanced registered nurse?

    You are required to cite five to 10 sources to complete this assignment. Sources must be published within the last 5 years and appropriate for the assignment criteria and nursing content.

    Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required advanced registered nurse scope of practice essay.

  • Quality Improvement Program for Nursing Home Executive Summary

    Executive Summary

    In this assignment, you will propose a quality improvement initiative from your place of employment that could easily be implemented if approved. Assume you are presenting this program to the board for approval of funding. Write an executive summary (750-1,000 words) to present to the board, from which the board will make its decision to fund your program or project. Include the following:

    The purpose of the quality improvement initiative.

    The target population or audience.

    The benefits of the quality improvement initiative.

    The interprofessional collaboration that would be required to implement the quality improvement initiative.

    The cost or budget justification.

    The basis upon which the quality improvement initiative will be evaluated.

    Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.

    This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

    You are required to submit this assignment to LopesWrite. Refer to the LopesWrite Technical Support articles for assistance.

    Quality Improvement Program for Nursing Home

    Executive Summary

    According to (WHO, 2020) facts, falls are the second leading cause of unintentional/accidental injury and cause an estimated 646000 deaths annually. Adults over 65 years account for the most casualties, with over 37 million falls requiring medical attention every year. Moreover, (CDC.gov, 2003), states that typical nursing home (with 100 beds or more) record hundreds of falls – many going unreported. A Bavarian study by (Büchele, 2014) postulates that the fall rates are higher in men (2.18 falls per person-year) than in women (1.49 falls per person-year) with three-quarters of the falls occurring in the residents’ rooms or bathrooms. Having worked in a seniors’ living facility for a couple of months, I realized that the facility had put very few measures to mitigate injury and death from falls in the facility. This quality improvement plan was created to help curb the prevalence of falls amongst older adults living within a nursing facility.

    Target Population/Audience

    More than 1.4 million seniors are living in over 15000 nursing homes across the US (CDC.gov, 2016). This plan is meant to benefit the 212 seniors living within the facility where I work as well as the millions of others living in nursing facilities in the US and globally.

    Benefits of the Program

    The plans seek to increase the number of support rails in the residents’ rooms, common areas, and high-risk areas as well as sensitizing residents on preventive measures against falls. Once implemented, the plan will benefit both the residents and staff living or working in the facility by reducing the number of falls. The sensitization program will also help older people to prevent any injuries or casualties resulting from accidental or unintentional falls during their stay within the facility.

    Interprofessional Collaboration Strategy

    For any quality improvement program to become successful and effective (Reeves, 2017) states that there must be a collaboration between healthcare professionals, stakeholders, and the target population. The plan will be useful and successful if a healthcare professional upholds collaboration in the facility and the members. The partnership will be required between facility staff, management, and the seniors living there. Each stakeholder plays a specific role in actualizing the program and ultimately boosting seniors’ safety within the facility. The main stakeholders include the Director of Nursing (DON) at the facility, Head Nurse (HN), CareGivers (CG), and the facility’s physical development team.

    Director of Nursing (DON)

    The DON plays an executive and oversight role in the program. As the chief decision-maker in the facility, she will approve all plans and models of the program and oversee its adoption and actualization in the facility. She also endorses program budgets and manages the accounts on behalf of all stakeholders. The DON receives briefings and opinions from the head nurse, registered nurses, and the facility’s physical development team.

    Head Nurse (HN)

    The HN oversees the implementation of the program at the ground level. She receives briefs from registered nurses and the facility’s physical development team and relays it to the DON for approval. The RN distributes resources and oversees program materials are provided and trickle-down promptly. As the project manager, the HN will ensure all plans are actualized and all steps put in place to ensure project success and effectiveness.

    CareGivers (CG)

    The CGs are the link between the seniors and the management. They are responsible for the actualization of the plans and training of the members on the program. CGs will ensure the support rails are fixed appropriately and in the right areas to minimize falls within the facility. They receive budget estimates from the physical development team and forward them to the registered nurses for approval.

    Physical Development Team

    The team is responsible for the erection and fixation of the support rails within the facilities. It will also ensure measures like resurfacing slippery floors, putting warnings and hazards in high-risk areas and ensuring common areas and seniors’ rooms are free from fall hazards.

    Budget Estimates for the Program

               
    The program entails fixing hand and support rails within the facility, seniors rooms, common areas and bathrooms. A few modifications will also be made in high risks areas like eradicating slippery floors. Support/grab rails cost $20-$30 per bar. The facility has 14 male shower rooms and 19 female shower rooms. Each shower requires at least 2 bars amounting to $100 per bath. All 212 seniors’ rooms will also need two support bars each – amounting to $50 per cabin. Physical improvements and training of members will require at least $1200 and $500 respectively. According to the above estimates, the entire program’s budget is approximately $15000.

    Program Evaluation

               
    Program evaluation is fundamental to any quality improvement program. According to (Pritham, 2016), the assessment allows stakeholders to determine the effects of the programs, its success, and possible improvements that can make it more effective. The program will be evaluated every month to determine whether it helps curb the number of falls amongst seniors living within the facility. Where loopholes are identified, actions will be taken swiftly to ensure the program runs effectively.

     

    References

    Büchele, G. B. (2014). Predictors of serious consequences of falls in residential aged care: analysis of more than 70,000 falls from residents of Bavarian nursing homes.
    Journal of the American Medical Directors Association, 15(8)
    , 559-563.

    CDC.gov. (2003, February 27).
    Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
    . Retrieved from CDC.gov: https://www.in.gov/isdh/files/CDC_Falls_in_Nursing_Homes.pdf

    CDC.gov. (2016, March 11).
    Center for Disease Conntrol and Prevention
    . Retrieved from CDC.gov : https://www.cdc.gov/nchs/fastats/nursing-home-care.htm

    Pritham, U. A. (2016). Assessing DNP impact using program evaluations to capture healthcare system change.
    The Nurse Practitioner, 41(4)
    , 44-53.

    Reeves, S. P. (2017). Interprofessional collaboration to improve professional practice and healthcare outcomes.
    Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews, (6)
    .

    WHO. (2020, March 20).
    World Health Organization
    . Retrieved from World Health Organization.int: https://www.who.int/news-room/fact-sheets/detail/falls

  • Pressure Ulcer Prevention and treatment in inpatient rehabilitation

    Write a 500-750 word about pressure ulcer prevention and treatment in inpatient rehabilitation. Make sure to include the following:

    The problem, issue, suggestion, initiative, or educational need that will be the focus of the project

    The setting or context in which the problem, issue, suggestion, initiative, or educational need can be observed.

    A description providing a high level of detail regarding the problem, issue, suggestion, initiative, or educational need.

    Impact of the problem, issue, suggestion, initiative, or educational need on the work environment, the quality of care provided by staff, and patient outcomes.

    Significance of the problem, issue, suggestion, initiative, or educational need and its implications to nursing.

    A proposed solution to the identified project topic

    You are required to retrieve and assess a minimum of 8 peer-reviewed articles. Plan your time accordingly to complete this assignment.

    Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide. An abstract is not required

    The problem, issue, suggestion, initiative, or educational need that will be the focus of the project

    Pressure ulcers have been identified as one of the leading causes of morbidity in in-patients as well as a contributor to poor health outcomes and consequent high increase in costs of healthcare (Jaul et al., 2018). Pressure ulcers are classified among the leading causes of medical-related errors. However, with appropriate care and interventions, nurses can avoid pressure ulcers and the resultant deteriorating effects on the patient and additional costs to a healthcare facility.

    The setting or context in which the problem, issue, suggestion, initiative, or educational need can be observed
    .

    Nurses working in healthcare facilities located in rural settings face a unique challenge as regards maintaining competency (Buerhaus et al., 2017). This is more so when these nurses face complications that are uncommon such as the treatment and prevention of pressure ulcers. Educational programs for nurses can improve their decision making processes. However, the programs need to be designed carefully and successfully implemented if sustained changes in practices are to be achieved as well as improved patient outcomes are to be realized (Stiggelbout et al., 2015).

    A description providing a high level of detail regarding the problem, issue, suggestion, initiative, or educational need

    Persons charged with nurse education in rural areas are required to educate nurses in a way that empowers them to offer care that is competent and knowledgeable including in lower frequency situations of patient care. Nurses in different competency levels have different prioritization of patient care (Meretoja et al., 2015). Beginner nurses have linear thinking while nurses that are more competent are capable of utilizing approaches that are more complex when prioritizing care to patients. Hence, understanding the needs of these categories of nurses helps in addressing complex care issues. The professional self-confidence and personal self-concept of nurses are related directly to the competency level of a nurse (Orta et al., 2016). Self-confidence is a necessary component of competence. Nurses with high levels of self-confidence also exhibit increased engagement and interest in care and management of patients, lifelong learning, as well as in addressing quality standards.

    Nurses working in rural settings may be impeded by few resources in the quest to access continuous education necessary for achieving clinical competency (Hendrickx &Winters, 2017). One of the main concerns regarding rural setting nurses is access to educational opportunities. Additionally, when evidence-based information is used in the continuing education programs, it increases the potential for rural setting nurses to attend as well as value the programs (Kalb et al., 2011)

    Impact of the problem, issue, suggestion, initiative, or educational need on the work environment, the quality of care provided by staff, and patient outcomes

    Prevention programs for pressure ulcers comprise of diverse components such as skin assessment, use of support surfaces and preventive measures, education and training, and assessment of risk (Mallah, Nassar, & Badr, 2015). Prevention programs for PU including nurse education have shown significant results as pertaining to the reduction in prevalence as well as a reduction in the time it takes to treat PU. When nurses’ knowledge improves, it results in enhanced patient outcomes such as a reduction in human suffering, reduction in pain, and a reduction in the time spent in hospitals (Dillie & Mengistu, 2015).

    Significance of the problem, issue, suggestion, initiative, or educational need and its implications to nursing

    Studies have shown that PU treatment and prevention can be enhanced through nurse’s knowledge, intentions, attitudes, and practices towards the healthcare concern, the years of experience, as well as the gender of nurse play a significant role in relation to the intentions, attitudes, practices, and knowledge of nurses on PU treatment and prevention (Dillie & Mengistu, 2015). Thus an education program that targets nurses of all genders and various levels of experience is a powerful tool for improving their understanding. Education programs can assist nurses to improve on the nursing care quality.

    A proposed solution to the identified project topic

    Rural nurses would benefit from an education program on PU treatment and prevention. A multi-faceted educational intervention will be designed. The project will require an instrument to be crafted that will measure the nurse’s knowledge on pressure ulcers and permission sought from relevant ethical boards to utilize the said instrument. The PICO model will be used where a multi-faceted, evidence-based educational intervention that is linked to treatment and prevention of pressure ulcers, in comparison to absence of formal education will result in enhancing the confidence and knowledge of rural setting nurses in caring for patients that have pressure ulcers or are at risk of acquiring PUs. The purpose of the project will be to assess the impact that an education intervention that is multi-faceted would have on the competency and knowledge of nurses working in rural settings, in relation to PU treatment and prevention. The goal of the project t will be to measure the multifaceted educational intervention’s efficacy in aiding rural setting nurses to not only achieve but also maintain the confidence and knowledge that is related to the treatment and prevention of PUs.

     

    References

    Buerhaus, P. I., Skinner, L. E., Auerbach, D. I., & Staiger, D. O. (2017). Four challenges facing the nursing workforce in the United States. 
    Journal of Nursing Regulation
    , 
    8
    (2), 40-46.

    Dilie, A., & Mengistu, D. (2015). Assessment of nurses’ knowledge, attitude, and perceived barriers to expressed pressure ulcer prevention practice in Addis Ababa government hospitals, Addis Ababa, Ethiopia, 2015. 
    Advances in Nursing
    , 
    2015
    .

    Hendrickx, L., & Winters, C. (2017). Access to continuing education for critical care nurses in rural or remote settings. 
    Critical care nurse
    , 
    37
    (2), 66-71.

    Jaul, E., Barron, J., Rosenzweig, J. P., & Menczel, J. (2018). An overview of co-morbidities and the development of pressure ulcers among older adults. 
    BMC geriatrics
    , 
    18
    (1), 1-11.

    Kalb, K. A., O’Conner-Von, S. K., Brockway, C., Rierson, C. L., & Sendelbach, S. (2015). Evidence-based teaching practice in nursing education: Faculty perspectives and practices. 
    Nursing education perspectives
    , 
    36
    (4), 212-219.

    Mallah, Z., Nassar, N., & Badr, L. K. (2015). The effectiveness of a pressure ulcer intervention program on the prevalence of hospital acquired pressure ulcers: controlled before and after study. 
    Applied Nursing Research
    , 
    28
    (2), 106-113.

    Meretoja, R., Numminen, O., Isoaho, H., & Leino‐Kilpi, H. (2015). Nurse competence between three generational nurse cohorts: A cross‐sectional study. 
    International journal of nursing practice
    , 
    21
    (4), 350-358.

    Orta, R., Messmer, P. R., Valdes, G. R., Turkel, M., Fields, S. D., & Wei, C. C. (2016). Knowledge and competency of nursing faculty regarding evidence-based practice. 
    The Journal of Continuing Education in Nursing
    , 
    47
    (9), 409-419.

    Stiggelbout, A. M., Pieterse, A. H., & De Haes, J. C. (2015). Shared decision making: concepts, evidence, and practice. 
    Patient education and counseling
    , 
    98
    (10), 1172-1179.

  • Where in the World Is Evidence-Based Practice?

    Discussion: Where in the World Is Evidence-Based Practice? Example 1

    Healthcare Organization Website Review

    Evidence-based practice is a tool used in healthcare to provide the most effective care that is available, intending to improve patient outcomes. It’s beneficial for problem-solving in the clinical care setting. EBP (evidence-based practice) is well-designed studies that have been done by clinical expertise. In reviewing EBP, I have discovered the healthcare organization Join

    The reviewed website for this discussion belongs to New York-Presbyterian Hospital (Nyp.org, 2019). It is one of America’s largest and most comprehensive healthcare delivery system devoted to providing the highest quality and most comprehensive care and services to patients. Besides, it is a leader in medical education and the only academic medical center in the whole of the US affiliated with two world-class medical schools. As a leading healthcare organization, NewYork-Presbyterian (NYP) The hospital should be at the forefront in implementing Evidence-based practice (EBP). This has not been a letdown, as shown by its mission, vision, purpose, and QPS domains. In its mission, EBP is evident as the organization strives to be a high-quality hospital that facilitates quality, safety, and best patient outcomes (Nyp.org, 2019). NYP’s mission is aligned with the objectives of EBP, which is the promotion of high-value health care through the provision of quality and reliable care, improve health outcomes, and minimize differences in costs and care (Melnyk, Gallagher-Ford, Long & Fineout-Overholt, 2014).

    EBP is shown in its vision, whose aim is to make NYP the best and safest academic health system through the promotion of zero harm, and a culture of safety, and reliability. In the purpose of the NYP, EBP is evident as the facility supports initiatives designed to develop and share best practices and attain optimal patient outcomes and family experience. Regarding QPS domains, EBP is evident in NYP quality improvement initiatives, patient safety, analytics, and infection prevention and control.

    Grounding of EBP

    An evaluation of the NYP website indicates that the organization’s work is grounded in EBP practice. The organization has formed partnerships with other healthcare organizations to provide the best medical education, patient-centered clinical care, and revolutionary research and innovation in the healthcare sector. According to Kowalski (2017), there are various ways to implement EBP in a hospital setting, and it includes education, peer involvement, leveraging expertise, promoting EBP culture, and many more. NYP achieves EBP when it creates and encourages EBP culture, EBP programs, research, innovations, and development of clinical guidelines in the clinical arena. For instance, it supports staff interested in EBP besides promoting a wide range of activities such as clinical trials to bring quality improvement (Crabtree, Brennan, Davis & Coyle, 2016). Supporting and involving healthcare providers in EBP is an important step taken by NYP because they serve as the front line of the clinical care and possess an exclusive chance to improve care via EBP.

    Perception of Healthcare Organization

    The information obtained on the website has changed my whole perception of hospitals and EBP. For instance, I have learned that hospitals are an integral component in enhancing EBP practices through the support of staff interested in EBP. Still, I have learned that EBP is part and parcel of the current health care system, which is now patient-centered.

     

    References

    Kowalski, M. (2017). Strategies to heighten EBP engagement. 
    Nursing Management (Springhouse)
    , 
    48
    (2), 13-15. doi: 10.1097/01.numa.0000511928.43882.55

    Melnyk, B., Gallagher-Ford, L., Long, L., & Fineout-Overholt, E. (2014). The Establishment of Evidence-Based Practice Competencies for Practicing Registered Nurses and Advanced Practice Nurses in Real-World Clinical Settings: Proficiencies to Improve Healthcare Quality, Reliability, Patient Outcomes, and Costs. 
    Worldviews On Evidence-Based Nursing
    , 
    11
    (1), 5-15. doi: 10.1111/wvn.12021

    Nyp.org. (2019). NewYork–Presbyterian Hospital Medical center. Retrieved 24 November 2019, from https://www.nyp.org/about-us/patient-safety

    Nyp.org. (2019). NewYork–Presbyterian Hospital Medical center. Retrieved 24 November 2019, from https://www.nyp.org/about-us/patient-safety

     

     

     

     

    Discussion: Where in the World Is Evidence-Based Practice? Example 2

    Evidence-based practice (EBP) is a lifelong analytic process to clinical practice that combines external evidence from research, evidence-based theories, clinical expertise, and patient preferences and values (Melnyk & Fineout-Overholt, 2018).  Best practice only occurs when staff continually ask questions about treatment and care, have the resources and skills necessary to search for and appraise research evidence, implement the evidence in practice, and evaluate its effectiveness (Dawes et al., [ 1] ; Hockenberry et al., [ 2] ).

    After researching for a healthcare organization that has evidence-based practice, I found the “The American Geriatrics Society” (AGS).  AGS is a nationwide, not-for-profit society of geriatrics healthcare professionals dedicated to improving the health, independence, and quality of life of older people (American Geriatric Society, 2020).  Founded in 1942, they have  6,000+ members which include geriatricians, geriatric nurses, social workers, family practitioners, physician assistants, pharmacists, and internists who are pioneers in advanced-illness care for older individuals, with a focus on championing interprofessional teams, eliciting personal care goals, and treating older people as whole persons( American Geriatric Society, 2020).   In addition, AGS hosts the premier industry scientific event annually where professional from all geriatric disciplines can garner the most current information and information-based research regarding aging research, and new and creative research based clinical care and delivery plans. Their vision, “We are all able to contribute to our communities and maintain our health, safety, and independence as we age; and older people have access to high-quality, person-centered care informed by geriatrics principles.” (American Geriatric Society, 2020).

    One AGS program, The AGS Annual Scientific Meeting, is the premier educational event in geriatrics, providing the latest information on clinical care, research on aging, and innovative models of care delivery (American Geriatric Society, 2020).  Held annually, the AGS Annual Scientific Meeting addresses the educational needs of geriatrics professionals from all disciplines.  Physicians, nurses, pharmacists, physician assistants, social workers, long-term care and managed care providers, health care administrators, and others can update their knowledge and skills through state-of-the-art educational sessions, including invited symposia, workshops, and meet-the-expert sessions (American Geriatric Society, 2020).

    The American Geriatric Society is grounded in evidence-based practice in their programs.  One can find evidence of this on their home page website under the program tab.  One example is the Geriatrics Workforce Enhancement Program where they participate in fall prevention for the elderly.  On July 2, 2019, AGS wrote a letter to the Senate Special Committee regarding fall-related injuries and deaths, which are a major threat to the health and independence of older adults (American Geriatric Society, 2020).

    As a nurse working with elderly patients, their family members and friends, my perception of AGS is that they are helpful in our society because the organization aims for something as unique as it is necessary like training the workforce we need.  This appears to be especially important because America has an extremely large and growing population of baby boomers.  Elderly people need and will continue to need a greater amount of care and comfort to lead a healthy life without worries and anxiety.

    References

    American Geriatric Society. (2020). Learn more about who we are. Retrieved from

    https://www.americangeriatrics.org/about-us

    Dawes, M., Summerskill, W., Glasziou, P., Cartabellotta, A., Martin, J., Hopayian, K., & … Osborne, J. (2005). Sicily statement on evidence ‐ based practice. BMC Medical Education, 5, 1. Retrieved from

    https://eds-b-ebscohost-com.ezp.waldenulibrary.org/eds/detail/detail?vid=1&sid=1d908346-

    Melnyk, B.M., & Fineout-Overholt, E. (2018). Evidence-based practice in nursing & healthcare: A guide to best practice (4th ed.). Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer.

     

     

    Discussion: Where in the World Is Evidence-Based Practice? Example 3

    According to Melnyk & Fineout-Overholt (2018), evidence-based (EBP) practice enhances the quality of healthcare and improves patient outcomes, so it is imperative that professional healthcare organizations use evidence-based practice.  The healthcare organization I chose to examine is the National Institute of Health (NIH).  The NIH is a governmental agency of the United States that is responsible for public health research.

    The foundation of the NIH is based on evidence-based practice and this is evident from browsing their website.  An example of their use of EBP is found in the mission and goals statement in which they state that “NIH’s mission is to seek fundamental knowledge about the nature and behavior of living systems and the application of the knowledge to enhance health, lengthen life, and reduce illness and disability” (www.nih.gov, n.d.).  Melnyk & Fineout-Overholt (2018) discuss the six steps of the evidence-based practice process, and based off of this mission statement, we see the second step, searching for and collecting the most relevant best evidence, come into play.  To demonstrate the NIH’s dedication to the use of EBP, the Feinstein Institute for Medical research, the largest healthcare provider in New York, was awarded a grant from the NIH for $850,000 to support their efforts to create tools for doctors and advanced practice medical personnel to make and implement evidence-based clinical practice, as it is estimated that a third of hospital deaths are due to a lack of EBP practice (PRNewswire, 2019).

    The NIH’s work is grounded in EBP as each step in the EBP process is seen throughout this healthcare organization.  The NIH begins with a question based off of a clinical situation.  They then receive funds to collect and search for the best and most relevant evidence.  The results of the studies are examined for validity and reliability.  They then integrate the evidence, evaluate the outcomes, and lastly disseminate the information.  On their website, there is a page dedicated to their 16 research initiatives and each appear to use the EBP process to further their research.

    My perception of this healthcare organization has changed.  I knew what the NIH’s purpose was, but was surprised by the amount of funding and emphasis put on evidence-based practice to help practitioners implement these processes in their healthcare systems.  As Melnyk & Fineout-Overholt (2018) discuss, while there is research evidence to help dictate best practice but many healthcare systems are steeped in tradition, and unwilling to change their policies.  Mccormack (2017) makes the point that it is often difficult for healthcare workers to maintain compliance in their healthcare facility to ensure they are meeting the national standard for accreditation, but at the same time are encouraged to research EBP, although it might go against the standard of practice set in one’s workplace.  I was impressed that the NIH provides research for EBP but also encourages and supports figuring out how to actually implement new research into medical personnel’s practice.

    References

    Effort to “nudge” doctor’s adoption of evidence-based clinical practice receives NIH support. (2019). PRNewswire. Retrieved from https://eds-b-ebscohost-com.ezp.waldenulibrary.org/eds/detail/detail?vid=5&sid=0d897207-4e3e-4e11-a8a1-be03acbf85e1@pdc-v-sessmgr03&bdata=JnNpdGU9ZWRzLWxpdmUmc2NvcGU9c2l0ZQ==#AN=201902131607PR.NEWS.USPR.CL53584&db=bwh

    Mccormack, B. (2017). Compliance Versus Innovation in Evidence-Based Nursing. Worldviews on Evidence-Based Nursing, 14(3), 173–174. doi: 10.1111/wvn.12240

    Melnyk, B. M., & Fineout-Overholt, E. (2018). Evidence-based practice in nursing & healthcare: a guide to best practice (4th ed.). Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer.

    National Institutes of Health. (n.d.). Retrieved February 26, 2020, from https://www.nih.gov/

     

     

    Discussion: Where in the World Is Evidence-Based Practice?

    March 21, 2010, was not EBP’s date of birth, but it may be the date the approach “grew up” and left home to take on the world.

    When the Affordable Care Act was passed, it came with a requirement of empirical evidence. Research on EBP increased significantly. Application of EBP spread to allied health professions, education, healthcare technology, and more. Health organizations began to adopt and promote EBP.

    In this Discussion, you will consider this adoption. You will examine healthcare organization websites and analyze to what extent these organizations use EBP.

    To Prepare:

    Review the Resources and reflect on the definition and goal of EBP.

    Choose a professional healthcare organization’s website (e.g., a reimbursing body, an accredited body, or a national initiative).

    Explore the website to determine where and to what extent EBP is evident.

    By Day 3 of Week 1

    Post
     a description of the healthcare organization website you reviewed. Describe where, if at all, EBP appears (e.g., the mission, vision, philosophy, and/or goals of the healthcare organization, or in other locations on the website). Then, explain whether this healthcare organization’s work is grounded in EBP and why or why not. Finally, explain whether the information you discovered on the healthcare organization’s website has changed your perception of the healthcare organization. Be specific and provide examples.

    By Day 6 of Week 1

    Respond
     to at least 
    two
     of your colleagues
     on two different days
     by visiting the websites they shared and offering additional examples of EBP or alternative views/interpretations to those shared in your colleagues’ posts.

     

    Discussion: Where in the World Is Evidence-Based Practice? Example 4

    The centers for Medicare & Medicaid services (CMS) is a government organization. Through this organization, many of our low-income families, pregnant women, people needing long term care and disabled individuals of all ages receive their access to proper health care. This is part of the department of Health and Human Services (HHS) which is used to provide benefits to these affected groups to ensure that medical care is provided whether it is for a routine doctor visit or hospital stay. As part of this agency, its mission to provide all Americans protection and provide essential human services (U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, 2017). Through this mission, it uses evidence-based findings to implement initiatives, provide information and address issues that affect the country.

    One of the ways that they gather their information is through the collecting of data from providers that participate in Accountable Care Organizations (ACOs) that are a part of the Medicare Shared Savings Plan. They receive CAHPS scores from ACOs survey to determine the patient care as coordinated, quality care from the health care providers. The questions are core information used to assess the “specialist care, experience with care coordination, patient involvement in decision-making, experiences with a health care team, health promotion and patient education, patient functional status, and general health” (Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, 2018). The importance of the data is that it is stored as quality and financial data to compare care, cost and specialized procedures with health care providers to make informed health decisions.

    To conclude, the collected information is important to identify trends in care and how to address them in a coordinated approach from health care professionals. This information that is collected and can be found on data.cms.gov, is information for research and implementing improvements that will benefit all American utilizing Medicare and Medicaid.

    Reference

    Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services. (2018, October 22). CAHPS for ACOs. Retrieved from https://www.cms.gov/Research-Statistics-Data-and-Systems/Research/CAHPS/ACO

    U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. (2017, February 10). HHS Historical Highlights. Retrieved from 
    https://www.hhs.gov/about/historical-highlights/index.html

     

    response

    I enjoyed reading your discussion post. 
     
    It provides helpful information about how the Center for Medical and Medicare (CMS) gathers its information. 
     
    Another way in which CMS provides evidence-based practice (EBP) care to their patients is through research. 
     
    For example, in Bill and Smith (2016) explained that CMS was directed to create goals that help reduce the number of hospital-acquired pressure injuries (Beal & Smith, 2016). 
     
    As a result, hospitals now have developed methods such as turning patients every two hours and providing baths, to mention a few.

     Another way in which CMS has helped improve positive outcomes for hospitalized patients is through partnerships with other agencies such as the Center for Disease Control and Prevention. 
     
    One of the quadrupled aim’s objective is to improve patient outcomes. 
     
    To help with this, CMS has partnered with CDC in the past to provide evidence regarding CAUTI infection related to catheter use (Cantrell, 2016). 
     
    Thus, to ensure that patients receive the most effective and current care, CMS limits reimbursements related to CAUTI infections in the hospital.
     

    This decision forced hospitals to come up with CAUTI bundles to help prevent CAUTIs and improve patients’ outcomes.

    Thank you for sharing this with us.

    References

    Beal, M. E., & Smith, K. (2016). Inpatient pressure ulcer prevalence in an acute care hospital using evidence-based practice.
     
    Worldviews on Evidence-Based Nursing
    ,
     
    13
    (2), 112-117. http://dx.doi.org/10.1111/wvn.12145

    Cantrell, S. (2016). CAUTI precaution.
     
    Healthcare Purchasing News
    ,
     
    40
    (1), 18-21. Retrieved from https://eds-b-ebscohost-com.ezp.waldenulibrary.org/eds/pdfviewer/pdfviewer?vid=7&sid=2ac2e86a-ef6d-4a8b-bf85-49852fe18cbe%40sessionmgr103

     

    Discussion: Where in the World Is Evidence-Based Practice? Example 5

    Based Evidence Practice plays a role when it comes to making decisions on promotion of good health or provision of care. The Implementation of EBP is important because it aims at giving patients the highest quality of care which leads to the best possible outcomes (Melnyk et al. 2018).

    The organization of choice is the Center for Evidence and Practice Improvement (CEPI). It deals with creation of know-how, synthesis of evidence, translation of knowledge on what is functional in health care dissemination and advocates for improvement across the health scene. This organization plays the role of conducting and supporting research activities and evidence synthesis on delivery of health care, advances decisions and communication sciences so that patients can enjoy the luxury of informed treatment and decisions made on health care (Horn et al. 2010).

    CEPI is made up of five constituent organizations, The Evidence Based Practice Center Program which is a source of evidence by review of information through the use of advanced methods so as to have impartial reviews, U.S. Preventive Service Task Force Program which avails technical data for the independent U,S Preventive Service Task Force empowering it to make recommendations which are grounded on evidence. The Division of Practice Improvement functions as a source of proof as well as method, means and analysis of practice enhancement while the Division of Health Information Technology comes up with policies of how health IT improves health care quality. The Division of Decision Science and Patient Engagement ensures informed decision making through the creation of tools and products based on findings which communicate and work in healthcare (Matchar et al 2013). From the roles played by its various divisions it is evident that CEPI is based on EBP and its role in the field of health care has made me appreciate what it stands for.

    Reference.

    Melnyk, B. M., & Fineout-Overholt, E. (2018). Evidence-based practice in nursing & healthcare: A guide to best practice (4th ed.). Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer.

    Horn, S. D., Gassaway, J., Pentz, L., & James, R. (2010). Practice-based evidence for clinical practice improvement: an alternative study design for evidence-based medicine. 
    Studies in health technology and informatics
    , 
    151
    , 446-460.

    Matchar, D. B., & Samsa, G. P. (2013). The role of evidence reports in evidence-based medicine: a mechanism for linking scientific evidence and practice improvement. 
    The Joint Commission journal on quality improvement
    , 
    25
    (10), 522-528.

    internet Citation: Center for Evidence and Practice Improvement (CEPI). Content last reviewed January 2017. Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality, Rockville, MD.

    https://www.ahrq.gov/cpi/centers/cepi/index.html

  • Digital Clinical Experience (DCE): Health History Assessment

    Assignment 2: Digital Clinical Experience (DCE): Health History Assessment

    A comprehensive health history is essential to providing quality care for patients across the lifespan, as it helps to properly identify health risks, diagnose patients, and develop individualized treatment plans. To effectively collect these heath histories, you must not only have strong communication skills, but also the ability to quickly establish trust and confidence with your patients. For this DCE Assignment, you begin building your communication and assessment skills as you collect a health history from a volunteer “patient.”

    Photo Credit: Getty Images/Caiaimage

    To Prepare

    Review this week’s Learning Resources as well as the 
    Taking a Health History
     media program, and consider how you might incorporate these strategies. Download and review the Student Checklist: Health History Guide and the History Subjective Data Checklist, provided in this week’s Learning Resources, to guide you through the necessary components of the assessment.

    Access and login to Shadow Health using the link in the left-hand navigation of the Blackboard classroom.

    Review the 
    Shadow Health Student Orientation
     media program and the 
    Useful Tips and Tricks
     document provided in the week’s Learning Resources to guide you through Shadow Health.

    Review the Week 4 DCE Health History Assessment Rubric, provided in the Assignment submission area, for details on completing the Assignment.

    DCE Health History Assessment:

    Complete the following in Shadow Health:

    Orientation

    DCE Orientation (15 minutes)

    Conversation Concept Lab (50 minutes)

    Health History

    Health History of Tina Jones (180 minutes)

    Note
    : Each Shadow Health Assessment may be attempted and reopened as many times as necessary prior to the due date to achieve 80% or better, but you must take all attempts by the Week 4 Day 7 deadline.

    Submission and Grading Information

    No Assignment submission due this week but will be due Day 7, Week 4.

     

    NURS_6512_Week_4_DCE_Assignment_2_Rubric

    Description: Note: To complete the Shadow Health assignments it is helpful to use the text and follow along with each chapter correlating to the area of assessment to assist in covering all the subjective questions. Review the Advanced Health Assessment Nursing Documentation Tutorial located in the Week 4 Resources, the model documentation in Shadow Health, as well as sample documentation in the text to assist with narrative documentation of the assessments. Do not copy any sample documentation as this is plagiarism. Shadow Health exams may be added to or repeated as many times as necessary prior to the due date to assist in achieving the desired score. You must pass this assignment with a total cumulative score of 79.5% or greater in order to pass this course.

    Grid View

    List View

    Excellent

    Good

    Fair

    Poor

    Student DCE score

    (DCE percentages will be calculated automatically by Shadow Health after the assignment is completed.)

    Note: DCE Score – Do not round up on the DCE score.

    56 
    (56%)
     – 60 
    (60%)

    DCE score>93

    51 
    (51%)
     – 55 
    (55%)

    DCE Score 86-92

    46 
    (46%)
     – 50 
    (50%)

    DCE Score 80-85

    0 
    (0%)
     – 45 
    (45%)

    DCE Score <79 No DCE completed. Subjective Documentation in Provider Notes Subjective narrative documentation in Provider Notes is detailed and organized and includes: Chief Complaint (CC), HPI, Current Medications, Allergies, Past Medical History, Family History, Social History and Review of Systems (ROS) ROS: covers all body systems that may help you formulate a list of differential diagnoses. You should list each system as follows: General: Head: EENT: etc. You should list these in bullet format and document the systems in order from head to toe. 36  (36%)  – 40  (40%) Documentation is detailed and organized with all pertinent information noted in professional language. Documentation includes all pertinent documentation to include Chief Complaint (CC), HPI, Current Medications, Allergies, Past Medical History, Family History, Social History and Review of Systems (ROS). 31  (31%)  – 35  (35%) Documentation with sufficient details, some organization and some pertinent information noted in professional language. Documentation provides some of the Chief Complaint (CC), HPI, Current Medications, Allergies, Past Medical History, Family History, Social History and Review of Systems (ROS). 26  (26%)  – 30  (30%) Documentation with inadequate details and/or organization; and inadequate pertinent information noted in professional language. Limited or/minimum documentation provided to analyze students critical thinking abilities for the Chief Complaint (CC), HPI, Current Medications, Allergies, Past Medical History, Family History, Social History and Review of Systems (ROS). 0  (0%)  – 25  (25%) Documentation lacks any details and/or organization; and does not provide pertinent information noted in professional language. No information is provided for the Chief Complaint (CC), HPI, Current Medications, Allergies, Past Medical History, Family History, Social History and Review of Systems (ROS). or No documentation provided. Total Points: 100 Name: NURS_6512_Week_4_DCE_Assignment_2_Rubric Description: Note: To complete the Shadow Health assignments it is helpful to use the text and follow along with each chapter correlating to the area of assessment to assist in covering all the subjective questions. Review the Advanced Health Assessment Nursing Documentation Tutorial located in the Week 4 Resources, the model documentation in Shadow Health, as well as sample documentation in the text to assist with narrative documentation of the assessments. Do not copy any sample documentation as this is plagiarism. Shadow Health exams may be added to or repeated as many times as necessary prior to the due date to assist in achieving the desired score. You must pass this assignment with a total cumulative score of 79.5% or greater in order to pass this course.

  • NURS 6501 Advanced Pathophysiology Module 4 Knowledge Check

    Question 1

    Needs Grading

    A 67-year-old Caucasian woman was brought to the clinic by her son who stated that his mother had become slightly confused over the past several days. She had been stumbling at home and had fallen once but was able to ambulate with some difficulty. She had no other obvious problems and had been eating and drinking. The son became concerned when she forgot her son’s name, so he thought he better bring her to the clinic.

    PMH-Type II diabetes mellitus (DM) with peripheral neuropathy x 20 years. COPD. Depression after death of spouse several months ago

    Social/family hx – non contributary except for 30 pack/year history tobacco use.

    Meds: Metformin 500 mg po BID, ASA 81 mg po qam, escitalopram (Lexapro) 5 mg po q am started 2 months ago

    Labs-CBC WNL; Chem 7- Glucose-92 mg/dl, BUN 18 mg/dl, Creatinine 1.1 mg/dl, Na
    +
    120 mmol/L,

    K
    +
    4.2 mmol/L, CO
    2
    37 m mol/L, Cl
    –
    97 mmol/L.

    The APRN refers the patient to the ED and called endocrinology for a consult for diagnosis and management of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH).

     

    Question:

    Define SIADH and identify any patient characteristics that may have contributed to the development of SIADH.

     

    Correct Answer:

     

    SIADH is a group of symptoms that occurs when antidiuretic hormone (ADH, arginine vasopressin) is secreted in the absence of osmotic or physiologic stimuli. These stimuli include: Increased serum osmolality, decreased plasma volume, and hypotension. A decrease in plasma osmolality normally inhibits ADH production and secretion. SIADH is characterized by fluid retention, dilutional hyponatremia, hypochloremia, concentrated urine, and lack of intravascular volume depletion. SIADH is characterized by normal to increased blood volume in normoproteinemia, nonedematous, and hyponatremic patients with normal renal and endocrine function. ADH regulates the body’s water balance. It is synthesized in the hypothalamus and stored in the posterior pituitary gland. When released into the circulation, it acts on the kidney’s distal tubules and collecting ducts, increasing their permeability to water. This decreases urine volume because more water is being reabsorbed and returned to the circulation. It also serves to produce more concentrated urine.

    Question 2

    Needs Grading

    A 43-year-old female presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of fever, chills, nausea and vomiting and weakness. She has been unable to keep any food, liquids or medications down. The symptoms began 3 days ago and have not responded to ibuprofen, acetaminophen, or Nyquil when she tried to take them. The temperature has reached as high as 102˚F.

     

    Allergies: none known to drugs or food or environmental

     

    Medications-20 mg prednisone po qd, omeprazole 10 po qam

     

    PMH-significant for 20-year history of steroid dependent rheumatoid arthritis (RA). GERD. No other significant illnesses or surgeries.

     

    Social-denies alcohol, illicit drugs, vaping, tobacco use

     

    Physical exam

     

    Thin, ill appearing woman who is sitting in exam room chair as she said she was too weak to climb on the exam table. VS Temp 101.2˚F, BP 98/64, pulse 110, Resp 16, PaO
    2
     96% on room air.

     

    ROS negative other than GI symptoms.

     

    Based on the patient’s clinical presentation, the APRN diagnoses the patient as having secondary hypocortisolism due to the lack of prednisone the patient was taking for her RA secondary to vomiting.

     

    Question:

     

    Explain why the patient exhibited these symptoms? 

    Correct Answer:

     

    An adrenal insufficiency requires some type of trigger or stressor such as surgery, trauma, infection or acute withdrawal of glucocorticoids. The patient had several factors contributing to her present situation. She had RA x 20 years that necessitated oral prednisone. Increased levels of both glucocorticoids (primarily cortisol) and mineralocorticoids (primarily aldosterone) are needed for the body to adapt to the stress Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) from the hypothalamus eventually prompts release of ACTH from the anterior pituitary gland. ACTH then stimulates release and 3 synthesis of cortisol from the adrenal cortex. Cortisol mobilizes amino acids from skeletal muscle and generally enhances the liver’s capacity for gluconeogenesis as well as enhances normal immune activity and maintenance of cardiovascular integrity. It also influences fat, carbohydrate and protein. Catecholamines cause vasoconstriction, which in the kidney, probably initiates release of renin, stimulating the rennin-angiotensionaldosterone-system (RAAS). Antidiuretic hormone (ADH, also called vasopressin), is released from the hypothalamus and posterior pituitary during periods of stress. Both aldosterone and ADH attempt to conserve water and electrolytes to sustain a sufficient vascular volume.

    Question 3

    Needs Grading

    A 64-year-old Caucasian female presents to the clinic with vague symptoms of non- specific abdominal pain, myalgias, constipation, polyuria, and says she feels “fuzzy headed” much of the time. She had about of kidney stones a few weeks ago and she fortunately was able to pass the small stones without requiring lithotripsy or other interventions. She was told by the urologist to follow up with her primary care provider after the kidney stones has resolved.

    The APRN examining the patient orders a Chem 7 which revealed a serum Ca++ of 13.1 mg/dl. The APN believes the patient has primary hyperparathyroidism and refers the patient to an endocrinologist who does a complete work up and concurs with the APRN’s diagnosis.

    Question:

    What is the role of parathyroid hormone in the development of primary hyperparathyroidism? 

    Correct Answer:

     

    Primary hyperparathyroidism is the unregulated overproduction of parathyroid hormone (PTH) resulting in abnormal calcium balance. PTH secretion is increased and is not under the usual feedback control mechanisms. The Ca++ level in the blood increase because of increased resorption and GI absorption of calcium but fails to inhibit PTH secretion at normal levels of calcium because the feedback threshold for calcium is set at a higher level in the abnormal parathyroid tissues. Hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia are the clinical hallmarks of hyperparathyroidism.

    Question 4

    Needs Grading

    A 64-year-old Caucasian female presents to the clinic with vague symptoms of non- specific abdominal pain, myalgias, constipation, polyuria, and says she feels “fuzzy headed” much of the time. She had a fracture of her right metatarsal without trauma and currently is wearing a walking boot. She also had a bout of kidney stones a few weeks ago and she fortunately was able to pass the small stones without requiring lithotripsy or other interventions. She was told by the urologist to follow up with her primary care provider after the kidney stones has resolved.

     

    The APRN examining the patient orders a Chem 12 which revealed a serum Ca++ of 13.1 mg/dl. The APRN believes the patient has primary hyperparathyroidism and refers the patient to an endocrinologist who does a complete work up and concurs with the APRN’s diagnosis.

     

    Question 1 of 2:

     

    Explain the processes involved in the formation of renal stones in patients with hyperparathyroidism. 

    Correct Answer:

     

    Increased renal filtration load of calcium leads to hypercalciuria. Hypercalcemia also affects proximal renal tubular functions, causing metabolic acidosis and production of abnormally alkaline urine. PTH hypersecretion enhances real phosphate excretion and results in hypophosphatemia and hyperphosphatemia. The combination of hypercalciuria, alkaline urine, and hyperphosphaturia leads to the formation of renal stones

    Question 5

    Needs Grading

    A 64-year-old Caucasian female presents to the clinic with vague symptoms of non- specific abdominal pain, myalgias, constipation, polyuria, and says she feels “fuzzy headed” much of the time. She had a fracture of her right metatarsal without trauma and currently is wearing a walking boot. She also had a bout of kidney stones a few weeks ago and she fortunately was able to pass the small stones without requiring lithotripsy or other interventions. She was told by the urologist to follow up with her primary care provider after the kidney stones has resolved.

    The APRN examining the patient orders a Chem 12 which revealed a serum Ca++ of 13.1 mg/dl. The APRN believes the patient has primary hyperparathyroidism and refers the patient to an endocrinologist who does a complete work up and concurs with the APRN’s diagnosis.

    Question 2 of 2:

    Explain how a patient with hyperparathyroidism is at risk for bone fractures.  

    Correct Answer:

     

    Excessive osteoclastic and osteocytic activity results in increased bone reabsorption that weakens the bone. Kyphosis of the dorsal spine and compression fractures of the vertebral bodies are also seen in patients with hyperparathyroidism.

    Question 6

    Needs Grading

    A 64-year-old Caucasian female who is 4 weeks status post total parathyroidectomy with forearm gland insertion presents to the general surgeon for her post-operative checkup. She states that her mouth feels numb and she feels “tingly all over. The surgeon suspects the patient has hypoparathyroidism secondary to the parathyroidectomy with delayed vascularization of the implanted gland. She orders a Chem 20 to determine what electrolyte abnormalities may be present. The labs reveal a serum Ca++ of 7.1 mg/dl (normal 8.5 mg/dl-10.5 mg/dl) and phosphorous level of 5.6 mg/dl (normal 2.4-4.1 mg/dl).

     

    Question:

     

    What serious consequences of hypoparathyroidism occur and why? 

    Correct Answer:

     

    Hypoparathyroidism occurs when there is destruction of the parathyroid glands (autoimmune, surgical), abnormal parathyroid gland development, altered regulation of PTH production, or impaired PTH action. The acute manifestations of hypoparathyroidism (postsurgical hypoparathyroidism) are due to acute hypocalcemia.  The hallmark of acute hypocalcemia is tetany, which is a disorder of neuromuscular irritability. The symptoms of tetany may be mild (perioral numbness, paresthesia of the hands and feet, muscle cramps) or severe (carpopedal spasm, laryngospasm, and focal or generalized seizures, which must be distinguished from the generalized tonic muscle contractions that occur in severe tetany). The classic physical findings in patients with neuromuscular irritability due to latent tetany are Trousseau’s and Chvostek’s signs.

    Question 7

    Needs Grading

    A 17-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician’s office by his parents who are concerned about their son’s weight loss despite eating more, frequent urination, unquenchable thirst, and fatigue that is interfering with his school/work activities. He had been seemingly healthy until about 3 months ago when his parents started noticing these symptoms but put these symptoms down to his busy schedule including a part time job. He admits to sleeping more and tires very easily. He denies any other symptoms.

     

    PMH-noncontributory. No surgeries or major medical problems. Usual colds and ear infections as a child

     

    Allergies-none know

     

    Family history- maternal uncle with “some kind of sugar diabetes problem” but parents unclear on the exact disease process

     

    Social-denies alcohol, tobacco or illicit drug use. Not sexually active. Junior at local high school and works in a fast food store after school and on weekends.

     

    Labs in office: random glucose 220 mg/dl.

     

    Based on his symptoms and the glucose level, the pediatrician makes a tentative diagnosis of Diabetes Mellitus type 1 and refers the boy and his parents to an endocrinologist for further work up and management plan.

     

    Question 1 of 6:

     

    The patient exhibited classic signs of Type 1 diabetes. Explain the pathophysiology of “polydipsia.”

    Correct Answer:

     

    Because elevated blood glucose levels, water is osmotically attracted from body cells which results in intracellular dehydration and hypothalamic stimulation of thirst.

    Question 8

    Needs Grading

    A 17-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician’s office by his parents who are concerned about their son’s weight loss despite eating more, frequent urination, unquenchable thirst, and fatigue that is interfering with his school/work activities. He had been seemingly healthy until about 3 months ago when his parents started noticing these symptoms but put these symptoms down to his busy schedule including a part time job. He admits to sleeping more and tires very easily. He denies any other symptoms.

     

    PMH-noncontributory. No surgeries or major medical problems. Usual colds and ear infections as a child

     

    Allergies-none know

     

    Family history- maternal uncle with “some kind of sugar diabetes problem” but parents unclear on the exact disease process

     

    Social-denies alcohol, tobacco or illicit drug use. Not sexually active. Junior at local high school and works in a fast food store after school and on weekends.

     

    Labs in office: random glucose 220 mg/dl.

     

    Based on his symptoms and the glucose level, the pediatrician makes a tentative diagnosis of Diabetes Mellitus type 1 and refers the boy and his parents to an endocrinologist for further work up and management plan.

    Question 2 of 6:

     

    The patient exhibited classic signs of Type 1 diabetes. Explain the pathophysiology of “polyuria.”

    Correct Answer:

     

    Hyperglycemia acts as an osmotic diuretic. The amount of glucose filtered by the glomeruli of the kidneys exceeds the amount that can be reabsorbed by the renal tubules. Glycosuria results accompanied by large amounts of water lost in the urine.

    Question 9

    Needs Grading

    A 17-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician’s office by his parents who are concerned about their son’s weight loss despite eating more, frequent urination, unquenchable thirst, and fatigue that is interfering with his school/work activities. He had been seemingly healthy until about 3 months ago when his parents started noticing these symptoms but put these symptoms down to his busy schedule including a part time job. He admits to sleeping more and tires very easily. He denies any other symptoms.

    PMH-noncontributory. No surgeries or major medical problems. Usual colds and ear infections as a child

    Allergies-none know

    Family history- maternal uncle with “some kind of sugar diabetes problem” but parents unclear on the exact disease process

    Social-denies alcohol, tobacco or illicit drug use. Not sexually active. Junior at local high school and works in a fast food store after school and on weekends.

    Labs in office: random glucose 220 mg/dl.

    Based on his symptoms and the glucose level, the pediatrician makes a tentative diagnosis of Diabetes Mellitus type 1 and refers the boy and his parents to an endocrinologist for further work up and management plan.

    Question 3 of 6:

    The patient exhibited classic signs of Type 1 diabetes. Explain the pathophysiology of “polyphagia.”

    Correct Answer:

     

    Depletion of cellular stores of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins results in cellular starvation and a corresponding increase in hunger.

    Question 10

    Needs Grading

    A 17-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician’s office by his parents who are concerned about their son’s weight loss despite eating more, frequent urination, unquenchable thirst, and fatigue that is interfering with his school/work activities. He had been seemingly healthy until about 3 months ago when his parents started noticing these symptoms but put these symptoms down to his busy schedule including a part time job. He admits to sleeping more and tires very easily. He denies any other symptoms.

     

    PMH-noncontributory. No surgeries or major medical problems. Usual colds and ear infections as a child

     

    Allergies-none know

     

    Family history- maternal uncle with “some kind of sugar diabetes problem” but parents unclear on the exact disease process

     

    Social-denies alcohol, tobacco or illicit drug use. Not sexually active. Junior at local high school and works in a fast food store after school and on weekends.

     

    Labs in office: random glucose 220 mg/dl.

     

    Based on his symptoms and the glucose level, the pediatrician makes a tentative diagnosis of Diabetes Mellitus type 1 and refers the boy and his parents to an endocrinologist for further work up and management plan.

    Question 4 of 6:

    The patient exhibited classic signs of Type 1 diabetes. Explain the pathophysiology of “weight loss.”

    Correct Answer:

     

    Weight loss occurs because of fluid loss in osmotic diuresis and the loss of body tissue as fat and proteins are used for energy as a result of the effects of insulin deficiency.

    Question 11

    Needs Grading

    A 17-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician’s office by his parents who are concerned about their son’s weight loss despite eating more, frequent urination, unquenchable thirst, and fatigue that is interfering with his school/work activities. He had been seemingly healthy until about 3 months ago when his parents started noticing these symptoms but put these symptoms down to his busy schedule including a part time job. He admits to sleeping more and tires very easily. He denies any other symptoms.

    PMH-noncontributory. No surgeries or major medical problems. Usual colds and ear infections as a child

    Allergies-none know

    Family history- maternal uncle with “some kind of sugar diabetes problem” but parents unclear on the exact disease process

    Social-denies alcohol, tobacco or illicit drug use. Not sexually active. Junior at local high school and works in a fast food store after school and on weekends.

    Labs in office: random glucose 220 mg/dl.

    Based on his symptoms and the glucose level, the pediatrician makes a tentative diagnosis of Diabetes Mellitus type 1 and refers the boy and his parents to an endocrinologist for further work up and management plan.

    Question 5 of 6:

    The patient exhibited classic signs of Type 1 diabetes. Explain the pathophysiology of “fatigue.”

    Correct Answer:

     

    Metabolic change result in poor use of food products, contributing to lethargy and fatigue. Sleep loss from severe nocturia also contributes to fatigue.

    Question 12

    Needs Grading

    A 17-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician’s office by his parents who are concerned about their son’s weight loss despite eating more, frequent urination, unquenchable thirst, and fatigue that is interfering with his school/work activities. He had been seemingly healthy until about 3 months ago when his parents started noticing these symptoms but put these symptoms down to his busy schedule including a part time job. He admits to sleeping more and tires very easily. He denies any other symptoms.

    PMH-noncontributory. No surgeries or major medical problems. Usual colds and ear infections as a child

    Allergies-none know

    Family history- maternal uncle with “some kind of sugar diabetes problem” but parents unclear on the exact disease process

    Social-denies alcohol, tobacco or illicit drug use. Not sexually active. Junior at local high school and works in a fast food store after school and on weekends.

    Labs in office: random glucose 220 mg/dl.

    Based on his symptoms and the glucose level, the pediatrician makes a tentative diagnosis of Diabetes Mellitus type 1 and refers the boy and his parents to an endocrinologist for further work up and management plan.

    Question 6 of 6:

    How do genetics and environmental factors contribute to the development of Type 1 diabetes?

    Correct Answer:

     

    Islet cell autoantibodies (ICAs) were detected in serum from patients with autoimmune polyendocrine deficiency. They have subsequently been identified in 85 percent of patients with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes and in prediabetic people.

    Autoantigens form on insulin producing beta cells and circulate in the blood and lymphatics. This leads to processing and presentation of autoantigen by antigen presenting cells

    There is activation of T helper 1 lymphocytes and T helper 2 lymphocytes There is activation of macrophages that release IL-1 and TNFα and activation of autoantigen specific T cytotoxic CD8 cells.

    There is activation of B lymphocytes to produce islet cell autoantibodies and antiGAD65 antibodies. This cascade results in destruction of beta cells with decreased insulin production.

    Question 13

    Needs Grading

    A 17-year-old boy recently diagnosed with Type I diabetes is brought to the pediatrician’s office by his parents with a chief complaint of “having the flu”. His symptoms began 2 days ago, and he has vomited several times and has not eaten very much. He can’t remember if he took his prescribed insulin for several days because he felt so sick. Random glucose in the office reveals glucose 560 mg/dl and the pediatrician made arrangements for the patient to be admitted to the hospitalist service with an endocrinology consult.

     

    BP 124/80mmHg; HR 122bpm; Respirations 32 breaths/min; Temp 97.2˚F; PaO
    2
    97% on RA

     

    Admission labs: Hgb 14.6 g/dl; Hct 58%

     

    CMP- Na+ 122mmol/L; K+ 5.3mmol/L; Glucose 560mg/dl; BUN 52mg/dl; Creatinine 4.9mg/dl;

     

    Cl- 95mmol/L; Ca++ 8.8mmol/L; AST (SGOT) 248U/L; ALT 198U/L; CK 34/35 IU/L; Cholesterol 198mg/dl;

     

    Phosphorus 6.8mg/dl; Acetone Moderate; LDH38U/L; Alkaline Phosphatase 132U/L.

     

    Arterial blood gas values were as follows: pH 7.09; Paco220mm Hg; Po2100mm Hg; Sao2 98% (room air)

     

    HCO3-7.5mmol/L; anion gap 19.4

     

    A diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis was made, and the patient was transferred to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) for close monitoring.

     

    Question:

     

    The hormones involved in intermediary metabolism, exclusive of insulin, that can participate in the development of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) are epinephrine, glucagon, cortisol, growth hormone. Describe how they participate in the development of DKA.

    Correct Answer:

     

    The most important concept is that DKA is caused by insulin deficiency and an increase in counterregulatory hormones that include glucagon, catecholamines, cortisol, and growth hormone. These counter regulatory hormones normally antagonize insulin buy increasing glucose production and decreasing tissue use of glucose. Insulin deficiency results in decreased glucose uptake, increased fat mobilization with release of fatty acids and accelerated gluconeogenesis, glycogenesis, and ketogenesis. In the absence of insulin, the release of free fatty acids from adipocytes increases production of ketone bodies by the mitochondria of the liver that exceeds peripheral use. Accumulation of ketone bodies causes a drop in pH and triggers the buffering system associated with metabolic acidosis. Hyperketonemia may result from impaired use of ketones by peripheral tissue, which permits strong organic acids to circulate freely. Bicarbonate buffering then does not occur and the individual develops a metabolic acidosis.

    Question 14

    Needs Grading

    A 67-year-old African American male presents to the clinic with a chief complaint that he has to “go to the bathroom all the time and I feel really weak.” He states that this has been going on for about 3 days but couldn’t come to the clinic sooner as he went to the Wound Care clinic for a dressing change to his right great toe that has been chronically infected, and he now has osteomyelitis. Patient with known Type II diabetes with poor control. His last HgA1
    C 
    was 10.2 %. He says he can’t afford the insulin he was prescribed and only takes half of the oral agent he was prescribed. Random glucose in the office revealed glucose of 890 mg/dl. He was immediately referred to the ED by the APRN for evaluation of suspected hyperosmolar hyperglycemic non ketotic syndrome (HHNKS). Also called hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state (HHS).

     

    Question:

     

    Explain the underlying processes that lead to HHNKS or HHS.

    Correct Answer:

     

    HHNKS differs from DKA in the degree of insulin deficiency (more profound I DKA) and the elevation of glucose levels and degree of fluid deficiency which are more marked in HHKS.

    The basic underlying mechanism of HHS is a relative reduction in effective circulating insulin with a concomitant rise in counterregulatory hormones. Unlike patients with DKA, most patients with HHS do not develop significant ketoacidosis. Insulin remains available in amounts sufficient to inhibit lipolysis and ketogenesis but insufficient to prevent hyperglycemia. Hyperosmolarity itself may also decrease lipolysis, limiting the amount of free fatty acids available for ketogenesis.

    Patients with HHS have a very high serum glucose concentration, a near normal serum bicarbonate level and pH, a serum osmolarity that is usually greater than 320 mOsm/L (normal 275–295 mOsm/L), and either absent or low levels of ketones in both the urine and serum. Electrolyte imbalances are common, with severe potassium deficits that need to be corrected, usually over several days. Phosphorous and sodium replacement may also be needed.

    Question 15

    Needs Grading

    A 32-year-old woman presented to the clinic complaining of weight gain, swelling in her legs and ankles and a puffy face. She also recently developed hypertension and diabetes type 2. She noted poor short-term memory, irritability, excess hair growth (women), red-ruddy face, extra fat around her neck, fatigue, poor concentration, and menstrual irregularity in addition to muscle weakness. Given her physical appearance and history, a tentative diagnosis of hypercortical function was made. Diagnostics included serum and urinary cortisol and serum adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). MRI revealed a pituitary adenoma.

     

    Question:

     

    How would you differentiate Cushing’s disease from Cushing’s syndrome? 

    Correct Answer:

     

    Cushing’s syndrome is a rare disease that is caused by the over production of cortisol by the adrenal glands. This can be caused by a tumor of the adrenal glands, the lungs, or the pituitary gland. When the tumor produces too much ACTH, it causes over production of cortisol by the adrenal glands. If the source is the pituitary, it is called Cushing’s disease. Cushing’s disease occurs more often in women than men and more often occurs between the ages of 20 and 40.

    ACTH dependent hypercortisolism, the excess ACTH stimulates excess production of cortisol and loss of the negative feedback control of ACTH secretion. People with Cushing’s syndrome do not have diurnal or circadian secretion patterns of ACTH and cortisol, and they do not increase ACTH and cortisol secretion in response to stressors.

    Question 16

    Needs Grading

    A 47-year-old female is referred to the endocrinologist for evaluation of her chronically elevated blood pressure, hypokalemia, and hypervolemia. The patient’s hypertension has been refractory to the usual medications such as beta blockers, diuretics, and angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors. After a full work up including serum and urinary electrolyte levels, aldosterone suppression test, plasma aldosterone to renin ratio, and MRI which revealed an autonomous adenoma, the endocrinologist diagnoses the patient with primary hyper-aldosteronism.

     

    Question:

     

    What is the pathogenesis of primary hyper-aldosteronism? 

    Correct Answer:

     

    Primary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by either hyperactivity in one adrenal gland (unilateral disease) or both (bilateral disease). Unilateral disease is usually caused by an aldosterone producing adenoma (benign tumor) and less commonly by adrenal cancer or hyperplasia (when the whole gland is hyperactive). Excessive autonomous secretion of aldosterone without its principle regulator, angiotension II, causes hypokalemia and induces insulin resistance; promotes inflammation, endothelial dysfunction, and cardiovascular remodeling (increased left ventricular wall and carotid intima thickness. It also affects adipose tissue differentiation and function. Therefore, primary hyperaldosteronism can influence the features of metabolic syndrome, including hypertension, obesity, dyslipidemia, insulin resistance and hyperglycemia.

    Question 17

    Needs Grading

    A 47-year-old African American male presents to the clinic with chief complaints of polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, and weight loss. He also said that his vison occasionally blurs and that his feet sometimes feel numb.  He has increased hunger despite weight loss and admits to feeling unusually tired. He also complains of “swelling” and enlargement of his abdomen.

     

    Past Medical History (PMH) significant for HTN fairly well controlled with and ACE inhibitor; central obesity, and dyslipidemia treated with a statin, Review of systems negative except for chief complaint. Physical exam unremarkable except for decreased filament test both feet. Random glucose in office 290 mg/dl. The APRN diagnoses the patient with type II DM and prescribes oral medication to control the glucose level and also referred the patient to a dietician for dietary teaching.

     

    Question:

     

    What is the basic underlying pathophysiology of Type II DM? 

    Correct Answer:

     

    There are very complex interactions that result in the development of Type II diabetes. The pathophysiology of type 2 diabetes mellitus is characterized by peripheral insulin resistance, impaired regulation of hepatic glucose production, and declining β-cell function, eventually leading toβ -cell failure. Type 2 diabetes mellitus consists of a constellation of dysfunctions characterized by hyperglycemia and resulting from the combination of resistance to insulin action, inadequate insulin secretion, and excessive or inappropriate glucagon secretion. It is often associated with obesity.

    Question 18

    Needs Grading

    A 21-year-old male was involved in a motorcycle accident and sustained a closed head injury. He is waking up and interacting with his family and medical team. He complained of thirst that doesn’t seem to go away no matter how much water he drinks. The nurses note that he has had 3500 cc of pale-yellow urine in the last 24 hours. Urine was sent for osmolality which was reported as 122 mOsm/L. A diagnosis of probable neurogenic diabetes insipidus was made.

     

    Question:

     

    What causes diabetes insipidus (DI)? 

    Correct Answer:

     

    Diabetes insipidus (DI) is defined as the passage of large volumes (>3 L/24 hr) of dilute urine (< 300 mOsm/kg). There are 2 major forms: Central (neurogenic, pituitary, or neurohypophyseal) DI, characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH; also referred to as arginine vasopressin [AVP]). Nephrogenic DI characterized by decreased ability to concentrate urine because of resistance to ADH action in the kidney. AVP is the primary determinant of free water excretion in the body. Its main target is the kidney, where it acts by altering the water permeability of the cortical and medullary collecting tubules. Water is reabsorbed by osmotic equilibration with the hypertonic interstitium and returned to the systemic circulation. Question 19 Needs Grading A 43-year-old female patient presents to the clinic with complaints of nervousness, racing heartbeat, anxiety, increased perspiration, heat intolerance, hyperactivity and palpitations. She states she had had the symptoms for several months but attributed the symptoms to beginning to care for her elderly mother who has Alzheimer’s Disease. She has lost 15 pounds in the last 3 months without dieting. Her past medical history is significant for rheumatoid arthritis that she has had for the last 10 years well controlled with methotrexate and prednisone. Physical exam is remarkable for periorbital edema, warm silky feeling skin, and palpable thyroid nodules in both lobes of the thyroid. Pending laboratory diagnostics, the APRN diagnoses the patient as having hyperthyroidism, also called Graves’ Disease.   Question:   Explain how the negative feedback loop controls thyroid levels. Correct Answer:   Hyperthyroidism is a set of disorders that involve excessive synthesis and secretion of thyroid hormones T3 and T4. This unregulated release causes a hypermetabolic state that can lead to a serious condition called thyrotoxicosis. The thyroid gland is regulated by thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) from the pituitary gland, which, in turn, is regulated by the hypothalamus via a negative feedback loop. Calcitonin, a hormone that affects blood calcium levels, is also secreted by the thyroid gland. Hyperthyroidism is known as Graves’ Disease. Genetic factors interacting with the environment triggers play an important role in the pathogenesis. It is classified as an autoimmune disease and often goes along with other autoimmune diseases. It results  from a failure of the feedback system. Normally, the secretion of thyroid hormone is controlled by a complex feedback mechanism involving the interaction of stimulatory and inhibitory factors (see the image below). Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus stimulates the pituitary to release TSH. In Graves’ disease, a circulating autoantibody against the thyrotropin receptor provides continuous stimulation of the thyroid gland. This stimulatory immunoglobulin has been called long-acting thyroid stimulator (LATS), thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin (TSI), thyroid-stimulating antibody (TSab), and TSH-receptor antibody (TRab). These antibodies stimulate the production and release of thyroid hormones and thyroglobulin. Question 20 Needs Grading A 43-year-old female patient with known Graves’ Disease presents to the clinic with complaints of nervousness, racing heartbeat, anxiety, increased perspiration, heat intolerance, hyperactivity and severe palpitations. She states she had been given a prescription for propylthiouracil, an antithyroid medication but she did not fill the prescription as she claims she lost it. She had been given the option of thyroidectomy which she declined. She also notes that she is having trouble with her vision and often has blurry eyes. She states that her eyes seem “to bug out of her face”. She has had recurrent outs of nausea and vomiting. She was recently hospitalized for pneumonia.  Physical exam is significant for obvious exophthalmos and pretibial myxedema. Vital signs are temp 101.2˚F, HR 138 and irregular, BP 160/60 mmHg. Respirations 24. Electrocardiogram revealed atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response. The APRN recognizes the patient is experiencing symptoms of thyrotoxic crisis, also called thyroid storm. The patient was immediately transported to a hospital for critical care management.   Question:   How did the patient develop thyroid storm? What were the patient factors that lead to the development of thyroid storm?  Correct Answer:   Thyroid storm is a hypermetabolic state induced by excessive release of thyroid hormones (THs) in individuals with thyrotoxicosis. Individuals may be undiagnosed or undertreated when they develop the symptoms. The symptoms are caused by the sudden release and action of thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3) that exceeds metabolic demands. Symptoms must be rapidly treated in order to prevent life threatening complications such as high output heart failure, hyperthermia, delirium and hypovolemia from excessive vomiting. Question 21 Needs Grading A 44-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of extreme fatigue, weight gain, decreased appetite, cold intolerance, dry skin, hair loss, and sleepiness. She also admits that she often bursts into tears without any reason and has been exceptionally forgetful. Her vision is occasionally blurry, and she admits to being depressed without any social or occupational triggers. Past medical history noncontributory. Physical exam Temp 96.2˚F, pulse 62 and regular, BP 108/90, respirations. Dull facial expression with coarse facial features. Periorbital puffiness noted. Based on the clinical history and physical exam, and pending laboratory data, the ARNP diagnoses the patient with hypothyroidism.   Question:   What causes hypothyroidism?  Correct Answer:   Patients with primary hypothyroidism have elevated TSH levels and decreased free hormone levels. Patients with elevated TSH levels (usually 4.5- 10.0 mIU/L) but normal free hormone levels or estimates are considered to have mild or subclinical hypothyroidism. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis known as Hashimoto’s disease. Primary hypothyroidism is essentially the only disease that is characterized by sustained rises in TSH levels. As the TSH level increases early in the disease, conversion of T4 to T3 increases, maintaining T3 levels. In early hypothyroidism, TSH levels are elevated, T4 levels are normal to low, and T3 levels are normal. Question 22 Needs Grading A 44-year-old woman is brought to the clinic by her husband who says his wife has had some mental status changes over the past few days. The patient had been previously diagnosed with hypothyroidism and had been placed on thyroid replacement therapy but had been lost to follow-up due to moving to another city for the husband’s work approximately 4 months ago. The patient states she lost the prescription bottle during the move and didn’t bother to have the prescription filled since she was feeling better. Physical exam revealed non-pitting, boggy edema around her eyes, hands and feet as well as the supraclavicular area. The APRN recognizes this patient had severe myxedema and referred the patient to the hospital for medical management.   Question:   What causes myxedema coma?  Correct Answer:   In a patient with underlying hypothyroidism, inciting factors responsible for developing myxedema coma are numerous and include infection, trauma, cold exposure, or medications such as sedatives and anesthetics. Although most individuals are not comatose, they are at risk for significant cardiovascular and pulmonary complications. Patients will exhibit severe hypothermia without shivering, hypoventilation, hypotension, hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis ad coma. Question 23 Needs Grading A 53-year-old woman presents to the primary care clinic with complaints of severe headaches, palpitations, high blood pressure and diaphoresis. She relates that these symptoms come in clusters and when she has these “spells”, she also experiences, tremor, nausea, weakness, anxiety, and a sense of doom and dread, epigastric pain, and flank pain. She had one of these spells when she was at the pharmacy and the pharmacist took her blood pressure which was recorded as 200/118. The pharmacist recommended that she immediately be evaluated for these symptoms. Past medical history significant for a family history of neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1). Based on the presenting symptoms and family history of NF1, the APRN suspects the patient has a pheochromocytoma. Laboratory data and computerized tomography of the abdomen confirms the diagnosis. Question 1 of 2:   What is a pheochromocytoma and how does it cause the classic symptoms the patient presented with?  Correct Answer:   Pheochromocytoma is an endocrine tumor of the adrenal gland that continuously secretes catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine) in an uncontrolled fashion. Hypertension results from increase peripheral vascular resistance and may be sustained or paroxysmal. Because of excessive catecholamine secretion, pheochromocytomas may precipitate life-threatening hypertension or cardiac arrhythmias. Hypermetabolism and sweating are related to chronic activation of sympathetic receptors in adipocytes, hepatocytes and other tissue. Glucose intolerance may happen because of catecholamine induced inhibition of insulin release by the pancreas. Catecholamines produced by pheochromocytomas are metabolized within chromaffin cells. Norepinephrine is metabolized to normetanephrine and epinephrine is metabolized to metanephrine. Because this process occurs within the tumor, independently of catecholamine release, pheochromocytomas are best diagnosed by measurement of these metabolites rather than by measurement of the parent catecholamines. Question 24 Needs Grading A 53-year-old woman presents to the primary care clinic with complaints of severe headaches, palpitations, high blood pressure and diaphoresis. She relates that these symptoms come in clusters and when she has these “spells”, she also experiences, tremor, nausea, weakness, anxiety, and a sense of doom and dread, epigastric pain, and flank pain. She had one of these spells when she was at the pharmacy and the pharmacist took her blood pressure which was recorded as 200/118. The pharmacist recommended that she immediately be evaluated for these symptoms. Past medical history significant for a family history of neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1). Based on the presenting symptoms and family history of NF1, the APRN suspects the patient has a pheochromocytoma. Laboratory data and computerized tomography of the abdomen confirms the diagnosis. Question 2 of 2: What are the treatment goals for managing pheochromocytoma?  Correct Answer:   Preoperative blockade of hormonally functional pheochromocytoma and paraganglioma (PPGL) to prevent cardiovascular complications is recommended, along with preoperative medical treatment to normalize blood pressure and heart rate and a  high-sodium diet with fluid intake to prevent severe hypotension after removal of the tumor. Blood pressure, heart rate, and glucose levels should be monitored immediately after surgery. Minimally invasive (e.g., laparoscopic) adrenalectomy should be performed for most adrenal pheochromocytomas, with open resection reserved for very large or invasive pheochromocytomas; open resection is suggested for paragangliomas, but laparoscopic resection is an option for smaller tumors; partial adrenalectomy is also an option for certain patients. Surgical resection of the tumor is the treatment of choice for pheochromocytoma and usually results in cure of the hypertension. Careful preoperative management is required to control blood pressure, correct fluid volume, and prevent intraoperative hypertensive crises.

  • NURS 6512 Discussion: Diversity and Health Assessments

    Discussion: Diversity and Health Assessments

    May 2012, Alice Randall wrote an article for 
    The New York Times
     on the cultural factors that encouraged black women to maintain a weight above what is considered healthy. Randall explained—from her observations and her personal experience as a black woman—that many African-American communities and cultures consider women who are overweight to be more beautiful and desirable than women at a healthier weight. As she put it, “Many black women are fat because we want to be” (Randall, 2012).

    Photo Credit: Getty Images

    Randall’s statements sparked a great deal of controversy and debate; however, they emphasize an underlying reality in the healthcare field: different populations, cultures, and groups have diverse beliefs and practices that impact their health. Nurses and healthcare professionals should be aware of this reality and adapt their health assessment techniques and recommendations to accommodate diversity.

    In this Discussion, you will consider different socioeconomic, spiritual, lifestyle, and other cultural factors that should be taken into considerations when building a health history for patients with diverse backgrounds. Your Instructor will assign a case study to you for this Discussion.

    To prepare:

    Reflect on your experiences as a nurse and on the information provided in this week’s Learning Resources on diversity issues in health assessments.

    By Day 1 of this week, you will be assigned a case study by your Instructor. 
    Note
    : Please see the “Course Announcements” section of the classroom for your case study assignment.

    Reflect on the specific socioeconomic, spiritual, lifestyle, and other cultural factors related to the health of the patient assigned to you.

    Consider how you would build a health history for the patient. What questions would you ask, and how would you frame them to be sensitive to the patient’s background, lifestyle, and culture? Develop five targeted questions you would ask the patient to build his or her health history and to assess his or her health risks.

    Think about the challenges associated with communicating with patients from a variety of specific populations. What strategies can you as a nurse employ to be sensitive to different cultural factors while gathering the pertinent information?

    By Day 3 of Week 2

    Post
     an explanation of the specific socioeconomic, spiritual, lifestyle, and other cultural factors associated with the patient you were assigned. Explain the issues that you would need to be sensitive to when interacting with the patient, and why. Provide at least five targeted questions you would ask the patient to build his or her health history and to assess his or her health risks.

    Note:
     For this Discussion, you are required to complete your initial post before you will be able to view and respond to your colleagues’ postings. Begin by clicking on the “Post to Discussion Question” link, and then select “Create Thread” to complete your initial post. Remember, once you click on Submit, you cannot delete or edit your own posts, and you cannot post anonymously. Please check your post carefully before clicking on 
    Submit!

    Read
     a selection of your colleagues’ responses.

    By Day 6 of Week 2

    Respond on or before Day 6
     
    on 2 different days
     to at least
     two
     of your colleagues who were assigned a different patient than you. Critique your colleague’s targeted questions, and explain how the patient might interpret these questions. Explain whether any of the questions would apply to your patient, and why.

     

    NURS_6512_Week_2_Discussion_Rubric

    Grid View

    List View

    Excellent

    Good

    Fair

    Poor

    Main Posting

    45 
    (45%)
     – 50 
    (50%)

    “Answers all parts of the Discussion question(s) with reflective critical analysis and synthesis of knowledge gained from the course readings for the module and current credible sources. Supported by at least three current, credible sources. Written clearly and concisely with no grammatical or spelling errors and fully adheres to current APA manual writing rules and style.

    40 
    (40%)
     – 44 
    (44%)

    “Responds to the Discussion question(s) and is reflective with critical analysis and synthesis of knowledge gained from the course readings for the module. At least 75% of post has exceptional depth and breadth. Supported by at least three credible sources. Written clearly and concisely with one or no grammatical or spelling errors and fully adheres to current APA manual writing rules and style.

    35 
    (35%)
     – 39 
    (39%)

    “Responds to some of the Discussion question(s). One or two criteria are not addressed or are superficially addressed. Is somewhat lacking reflection and critical analysis and synthesis. Somewhat represents knowledge gained from the course readings for the module. Post is cited with two credible sources. Written somewhat concisely; may contain more than two spelling or grammatical errors. Contains some APA formatting errors.

    0 
    (0%)
     – 34 
    (34%)

    “Does not respond to the Discussion question(s) adequately. Lacks depth or superficially addresses criteria. Lacks reflection and critical analysis and synthesis. Does not represent knowledge gained from the course readings for the module. Contains only one or no credible sources. Not written clearly or concisely. Contains more than two spelling or grammatical errors. Does not adhere to current APA manual writing rules and style.

    Main Post: Timeliness

    10 
    (10%)
     – 10 
    (10%)

    Posts main post by Day 3.

    0 
    (0%)
     – 0 
    (0%)

    N/A

    0 
    (0%)
     – 0 
    (0%)

    N/A

    0 
    (0%)
     – 0 
    (0%)

    Does not post main post by Day 3.

    First Response

    17 
    (17%)
     – 18 
    (18%)

    “Response exhibits synthesis, critical thinking, and application to practice settings. Provides clear, concise opinions and ideas that are supported by at least two scholarly sources. Demonstrates synthesis and understanding of Learning Objectives. Communication is professional and respectful to colleagues. Responses to faculty questions are fully answered, if posed. Response is effectively written in standard, edited English.

    15 
    (15%)
     – 16 
    (16%)

    “Response exhibits critical thinking and application to practice settings. Communication is professional and respectful to colleagues. Responses to faculty questions are answered, if posed. Provides clear, concise opinions and ideas that are supported by two or more credible sources. Response is effectively written in standard, edited English.

    13 
    (13%)
     – 14 
    (14%)

    “Response is on topic and may have some depth. Responses posted in the Discussion may lack effective professional communication. Responses to faculty questions are somewhat answered, if posed. Response may lack clear, concise opinions and ideas, and a few or no credible sources are cited.

    0 
    (0%)
     – 12 
    (12%)

    “Response may not be on topic and lacks depth. Responses posted in the Discussion lack effective professional communication. Responses to faculty questions are missing. No credible sources are cited.

    Second Response

    16 
    (16%)
     – 17 
    (17%)

    “Response exhibits synthesis, critical thinking, and application to practice settings. Provides clear, concise opinions and ideas that are supported by at least two scholarly sources. Demonstrates synthesis and understanding of Learning Objectives. Communication is professional and respectful to colleagues. Responses to faculty questions are fully answered, if posed. Response is effectively written in standard, edited English.

    14 
    (14%)
     – 15 
    (15%)

    “Response exhibits critical thinking and application to practice settings. Communication is professional and respectful to colleagues. Responses to faculty questions are answered, if posed. Provides clear, concise opinions and ideas that are supported by two or more credible sources. Response is effectively written in standard, edited English.

    12 
    (12%)
     – 13 
    (13%)

    “Response is on topic and may have some depth. Responses posted in the Discussion may lack effective professional communication. Responses to faculty questions are somewhat answered, if posed. Response may lack clear, concise opinions and ideas, and a few or no credible sources are cited.

    0 
    (0%)
     – 11 
    (11%)

    “Response may not be on topic and lacks depth. Responses posted in the Discussion lack effective professional communication. Responses to faculty questions are missing. No credible sources are cited.

    Participation

    5 
    (5%)
     – 5 
    (5%)

    Meets requirements for participation by posting on three different days.

    0 
    (0%)
     – 0 
    (0%)

    N/A

    0 
    (0%)
     – 0 
    (0%)

    N/A

    0 
    (0%)
     – 0 
    (0%)

    Does not meet requirements for participation by posting on three different days.

    Total Points: 100

  • NURS 6512 Advanced Health Assessment midterm exam questions and answers

    NURS-6512F-23-Advanced Health Assessment midterm

    93%

     

     

    Question 1

    Percussing at the right midclavicular line, below the umbilicus, and continuing upward is the correct technique for locating the:

    descending aorta.

    lower liver border.

    upper right kidney ridge.

    medial border of the spleen.

    B

     

     

     

     

    Question 2

    Mrs. G. reports an increase in her alcohol intake over the past 5 years. To screen her for problem drinking, you would use the:

    PACES assessment.

    Miller Analogies Test.

    Glasgow Coma Scale.

    CAGE questionnaire.

    D

     

     

    Question 3

    A brief statement of the reason the patient is seeking health care is called the:

    chief complaint.

    diagnosis.

    medical history.

    assessment.

    A

     

     

    Question 4

    A 5-year-old child presents with nasal congestion and a headache. To assess for sinus tenderness you should palpate over the:

    sphenoid and frontal sinuses.

    maxillary and frontal sinuses.

    sphenoid sinuses only.

    maxillary sinuses only.

    D

     

     

     

    Question 5

    Which statement is true regarding the relationship of physical characteristics and culture?

    To be a member of a specific culture, an individual must have certain identifiable physical characteristics.

    Physical characteristics should be used to identify members of cultural groups.

    Gender and race are the two essential physical characteristics used to identify cultural groups.

    There is a difference between distinguishing cultural characteristics and distinguishing physical characteristics.

    D

     

     

    Question 6

    Inspection of the abdomen should begin with the patient supine and the examiner:

    standing at the foot of the table.

    seated on the patient’s right.

    walking around the table.

    standing at the patient’s left.

    B

     

     

     

    uestion 7

    Ms. Otten is a 45-year-old patient who presents with a complaint of weight gain. Which medication is frequently associated with weight gain?

    Steroids

    Laxatives

    Oral hypoglycemics

    Diuretics

    A

     

     

    Question 8

    During physical examination of a 30-year-old Chinese man, you notice slight asymmetry of his face. The cranial nerve examination is normal. Your best action is to:

    B. perform monofilament testing on the face.

    D. record the finding in the patient’s chart.

    A. ask the patient if this characteristic runs in his family.

    C. consult with the physician regarding laboratory tests needed.

    C

     

     

     

    Question 9

    A fixed image of any group that rejects its potential for originality or individuality is known as a(n):

    norm.

    acculturation.

    stereotype.

    ethnos.

    C

     

    Question 10

    Tangential lighting is best used for inspecting skin:

    exudates.

    color.

    contour.

    symmetry.

    C

     

     

     

     

    Question 11

    Mrs. Britton is a 34-year-old patient who presents to the office with complaints of skin rashes. You have noted a 4′ 3-cm, rough, elevated area of psoriasis. This is an example of a:

    B. patch.

    D. papule.

    C. macule.

    A. plaque.

    D

     

     

     

    Question 12

    During an interview, tears appear in the patient’s eyes and his voice becomes shaky. Initially, you should:

    ask the patient what he is upset about.

    ask him if he would like some time alone.

    offer a tissue and let him know it is all right to cry.

    explain to the patient that you will be able to help him more if he can control his emotions.

    C

     

     

     

     

    Question 13

    When communicating with older children and teenagers, you should be sensitive to their:

    typical reluctance to talk.

    natural urge to communicate.

    need for verbal instructions.

    desire for adult companionship.

    A

    Question 14

    Expected hair distribution changes in older adults include:

    increased terminal hair follicles to the tragus of men’s ears.

    more prominent axillary and pubic hair production.

    increased terminal hair follicles on the scalp.

    more prominent peripheral extremity hair production.

    A

     

     

     

    Question 15

    The examiner’s evaluation of a patient’s mental status belongs in the:

    physical examination.

    review of systems.

    history of present illness.

    patient education.

    Aa

     

     

     

     

     

     

    Question 16

    When examining the skull of a 4-month-old baby, you should normally find:

    D. overlap of cranial bones.

    A. closure of the anterior fontanel.

    C. ossification of all sutures.

    B. closure of the posterior fontanel.

    D

     

     

     

     

    Question 17

    You are using an ophthalmoscope to examine a patient’s inner eye. You rotate the lens selector clockwise, then counterclockwise to compensate for:

    astigmatism.

    strabismus.

    amblyopia.

    myopia.

    D

     

     

     

     

     

     

    Question 18

    The most superior part of the stomach is the:

    pyloric orifice.

     

    body.

    pylorus.

    fundus.

    D

     

     

     

     

     

     

    Question 19

    Brittle nails are typical findings in:

    D. older adults.

    C. pregnant women.

    A. adolescents.

    B. infants.

    Older adults

     

     

     

     

    Question 20

    Which of the following is the most vital nutrient?

    Fat

    Protein

    Water

    Carbohydrate

    C

     

     

     

     

    Question 21

    A tool used to screen adolescents for alcoholism is the:

    HITS.

    CAGE.

    CRAFFT.

    PACES.

    C

     

     

     

     

     

     

    Question 22

    When taking a history, you should:

    use a holistic and eclectic structure.

    start the interview with the patient’s family history.

    ask the patient to give you any information they can recall about their health.

    use a chronologic and sequential framework.

    D

     

     

     

     

     

     

    Question 23

    Ms. G. is being seen for her routine physical examination. She is a college graduate and president of a research firm. Although her exact salary is unknown, she has adequate health insurance. Most of the above information is part of Ms. G.’s _____ history.

    past medical

    family

    personal and social

    present problem

    C

     

     

     

     

    Question 24

    Mr. Williams, age 25, has recovered recently from an upper and lower respiratory infection. He describes a long-standing nasal dripping. He is seeking treatment for a mild hearing loss that has not gone away. Information concerning his chronic postnasal drip should be documented within which section of his history?

    Past medical data

    Age-specific data

    Social history

    Past surgical data

    A

     

     

     

     

    Question 25

    Mr. Jones is a 45-year-old patient who presents for a physical examination. On examination, you note costochondral beading, enlarged skull, and bowed legs and diagnose him with rickets. A deficiency of which fat-soluble micronutrient can result in rickets?

    Vitamin  K

    Vitamin E

    Vitamin A

    Vitamin D

    D

     

    Question 26

    Mrs. Grace is a 58-year-old patient who has a diagnosis of pernicious anemia. Which B vitamin is deficient in patients with pernicious anemia?

    B1

    B2

    B6

    B12

    D

     

     

     

    Question 27

    After thorough inspection of the abdomen, the next assessment step is:

    percussion.

    palpation.

    rectal examination.

    auscultation.

    D

     

     

     

    Question 28

    You are examining a pregnant patient and have noted a vascular lesion. When you blanche over the vascular lesion, the site blanches and refills evenly from the center outward. The nurse documents this lesion as a:

    A. telangiectasia.

    C. petechiae.

    B. spider angioma.

    D. purpura.

    C

     

     

     

     

     

    Question 29

    Which of the following is the most accurate reflection of an individual’s food intake?

    Serum protein assays

    Food diary

    Twenty-four-hour diet recall

    Computerized nutrient analysis

    B

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

    Question 30

    Mr. Abdul is a 40-year-old Middle Eastern man who presents to the office for a first visit with the complaint of new abdominal pain. You are concerned about violating a cultural prohibition when you prepare to do his rectal examination. The best tactic would be to:

    ask a colleague from the same geographic area if this examination is acceptable.

    inform the patient of the reason for the examination and ask if it is acceptable to him.

    forego the examination for fear of violating cultural norms.

    refer the patient to a provider more knowledgeable about cultural differences.

    B

     

     

     

     

     

     

    Question 31

    Tracheal tug suggests the presence of a(n):

    enlarged thyroid.

    thoracic carcinoma.

    swallowing disorder.

    aortic aneurysm.

    D

     

     

     

    Question 32

    As you explain your patient’s condition to her husband, you notice that he is leaning toward you and pointedly blinking his eyes. Knowing that he is from England, your most appropriate response to this behavior is to:

    tell him that you understand his need to be alone.

    ask whether he would prefer to speak to the clinician.

    tell him that it is all right to be angry.

    ask whether he has any questions.

    D

     

     

     

     

    Question 33

    When hearing is evaluated, which cranial nerve is being tested?

    IV

    VIII

    III

    XII

    B

     

     

     

     

     

    Question 34

    Nuchal rigidity is most commonly associated with:

    A. thyroiditis.

    C. Down syndrome.

    D. cranial nerve V damage.

    B. meningeal irritation.

    D

     

     

     

    Question 35

    The attitudes of the health care professional:

    are difficult for the patient to sense.

    are largely irrelevant to the success of relationships with the patient.

    do not influence patient behavior.

    are culturally derived.

    D

     

     

    Question 36

    Macronutrients are so named because they:

    form long chemical chains.

    have high molecular weights.

    are required in large amounts.

    tend to increase waist measurements.

    C

     

     

     

     

    Question 37

    White, rounded, or oval ulcerations surrounded by a red halo and found on the oral mucosa are:

    aphthous ulcers.

    Fordyce spots.

    leukoedema.

    Stensen ducts.

    A

     

     

     

    Question 38

    Which type of speculum should be used to examine a patient’s tympanic membrane?

    The shortest speculum available

    The smallest speculum that will illuminate the ear

    Any speculum that will fit the otoscope head

    The largest speculum that will fit comfortably in the ear

    D

     

     

    uestion 39

    To correctly document absent bowel sounds, one must listen continuously for:

    5 minutes.

    1 minute.

    30 seconds.

    3 minutes.

    A

     

     

     

     

    Question 40

    Which part of the information contained in the patient’s record may be used in court?

    Objective information only

    All information

    Diagnostic information only

    Subjective information only

    B

     

     

     

    Question 41

    A flat, nonpalpable lesion is described as a macule if the diameter is:

    greater than 1 cm.

    less than 1 cm.

    3 cm exactly.

    too irregular to measure.

    B

     

     

     

    Question 42

    Knowledge of the culture or cultures represented by the patient should be used to:

    help make the interview questions more pertinent.

    draw conclusions regarding individual patient needs.

    form stereotypical categories.

    form a sense of the patient.

    A

     

     

     

    The review of systems is a component of the:

    health history.

    assessment.

    physical examination.

    past medical/surgical history.

    A

     

     

     

     

     

    Question 44

    Mr. Akins is a 78-year-old patient who presents to the clinic with complaints of hearing loss. Which of the following are changes in hearing that occur in the elderly? Select all that apply.

    a.

    Progression is slow

    b.

    Bone conduction heard longer than air conduction

    c.

    Results from cranial nerve VII

    d.

    Loss of high frequency

    e.

    Sounds may be garbled and difficult to localize

    f.

    Unable to hear in a crowded room

    D

    E

    F

     

     

     

    Question 45

    Which of the following is an expected change in the assessment of the thyroid during pregnancy?

    A bruit is auscultated.

    Inspection reveals a goiter.

    The gland is tender upon palpation.

    Palpation of the gland becomes difficult.

    A

     

     

    Question 46

    A 17-year-old girl presents to the clinic for a sports physical. Physical examination findings reveal bradycardia, multiple erosions of tooth enamel, and scars on her knuckles. She appears healthy otherwise. You should ask her if she:

    is cold intolerant.

    binges and vomits.

    has constipation frequently.

    has regular menstrual periods.

    Bb

     

     

     

    Question 47

    Mr. Walters, a 32-year-old patient, tells you that his ears are “stopped up.” An objective assessment of this complaint is achieved by using the:

    otoscope with pneumatic attachment.

    tympanometer.

    reflex hammer.

    tuning fork.

    B

     

     

    Question 48

    During an interview, you have the impression that a patient may be considering suicide. Which action is essential?

    Ask whether the patient has considered self-harm.

    Avoid directly confronting the patient regarding your impression.

    Record the impression in the patient’s chart and refer the patient for hospitalization.

    Ask whether the patient would like to visit a psychiatrist.

    A

     

     

     

    Question 49

    When are open-ended questions generally most useful?

    During the initial part of the interview

    While designing the genogram

    During the review of systems

    After several close-ended questions have been asked

    A

     

     

     

     

    Question 50

    When assessing abdominal pain in a college-age woman, one must include:

    history of interstate travel.

    food likes and dislikes.

    the first day of the last menstrual period.

    age at completion of toilet training.

    C

     

     

    Question 51

    Regardless of the origin, discharge is described by noting:

    color and consistency.

    associated symptoms in alphabetic order.

    a grading scale of 0 to 4.

    demographic data and risk factors.

    A

     

     

     

    Question 52

    Spasmodic muscular contractions of the head, face, or neck are called:

    D. webbing.

    B. tics.

    A. torticollis.

    C. dimpling.

    B

     

     

     

    Question 53

    Before performing an abdominal examination, the examiner should:

    don double gloves.

    have the patient empty his or her bladder.

    ascertain the patient’s HIV status.

    completely disrobe the patient.

    B

     

     

     

     

    Question 54

    The recommended minimum daily protein requirement for the normal adult is ______

    14-20%

     

     

    Question 55

    Subjective and symptomatic data are:

    not mentioned in the legal chart.

    recorded with the examination technique.

    placed in the history section.

    documented with the examination findings.

    C

     

     

    Question 56

    Your patient returns for a blood pressure check 2 weeks after a visit during which you performed a complete history and physical. This visit would be documented by creating a(n):

    accident report.

    progress note.

    triage note.

    problem-oriented medical record.

    B

     

     

     

    Question 57

    Which of the following formats would be used for visits that address problems not yet identified in the problem-oriented medical record (POMR)?

    Progress note

    Brief SOAP note

    Referral note

    Comprehensive health history

    B

     

     

     

    Question 58

    You are collecting a history from an 11-year-old girl. Her mother is sitting next to her in the examination room. When collecting history from older children or adolescents, they should be:

    ignored while you address all questions to the parent.

    mailed a questionnaire in advance to avoid the need for her to talk.

    given the opportunity to be interviewed without the parent at some point during the interview.

    allowed to direct the flow of the interview.

    C

     

     

     

     

     

    Question 59

    A 51-year-old woman calls with complaints of weight loss and constipation. She reports enlarged hemorrhoids and rectal bleeding. You advise her to:

    use topical over-the-counter hemorrhoid treatment for 1 week.

    eat six small meals a day.

    exercise and eat more fiber.

    come to the laboratory for a stool guaiac test.

    D

     

     

    Question 60

    Mr. Marks is a 66-year-old patient who presents for a physical examination to the clinic. Which question has the most potential for exploring a patient’s cultural beliefs related to a health problem?

    “What are your age, race, and educational level?”

    “What types of symptoms have you been having?”

    “Why do you think you are having these symptoms?”

    “How often do you have medical examinations?”

    C

     

     

     

     

    Question 61

    Which cranial nerves innervate the face?

    A. II and V

    B. III and VI

    D. VIII and IX

    C. V and VII

    D

     

     

    Question 62

    Peritonitis produces bowel sounds that are:

    absent.

    high pitched.

    hypoactive.

    hyperactive.

    C

     

     

     

     

     

    Question 63

    Mrs. Raymonds is a 24-year-old patient who has presented for a routine concern over her current weight. In your patient teaching with her, you explain the importance of macronutrients. Which of the following is a macronutrient?

    Fat

    Calcium

    Iron

    Thiamin

    A

     

     

    Question 64

    Nasal symptoms that imply an allergic response include:

    small, atrophied nasal membranes.

    firm consistency of turbinates.

    purulent nasal drainage.

    bluish gray turbinates.

    D

     

     

    Question 65

    Mr. Johnson presents with a freely movable cystic mass in the midline of the high neck region at the base of the tongue. This is most likely a:

    D. thyroglossal duct cyst.

    A. parotid gland tumor.

    B. branchial cleft cyst.

    C. Stensen duct stone.

    A

     

     

    Question 66

    Pigmented, raised, warty lesions over the face and trunk should be assessed by an experienced practitioner who can distinguish:

    C. sebaceous hyperplasia from eczema.

    D. seborrheic keratoses from actinic keratoses.

    B. furuncles from folliculitis.

    A. cutaneous tags from lentigines.

    B

     

    Question 67

    When you are questioning a patient regarding alcohol intake, she tells you that she is only a social drinker. Which initial response is appropriate?

    “I’m glad that you are a responsible drinker.”

    “If you only drink socially, you won t need to worry about always having a designated driver.”

    “Do the other people in your household consume alcohol?”

    “What amount and what kind of alcohol do you drink in a week?”

    D

     

    Question 68

    Mrs. Kinder is a 39-year-old patient who presents to the office with complaints of an earache. In explaining to the patient about the function of her ears, which ear structure would you tell her is responsible for equalizing atmospheric pressure when swallowing, sneezing, or yawning?

    Eustachian tube

    Triangular fossa

    Inner ear

    Pars flaccida

    A

     

     

    Question 69

    What finding is unique to the documentation of a physical examination of an infant?

    Thyroid position

    Prostate size

    Liver span

    Fontanel sizes

    D

     

     

    Question 70

    A blood pressure cuff bladder should be long enough to:

    cover 75% to 80% of the arm circumference.

    completely encircle the arm.

    cover 20% to 25% of the arm circumference.

    cover 45% to 50% of the arm circumference.

    D

     

     

    Question 71

    Mr. and Mrs. Johnson have presented to the office with their infant son with complaints of ear drainage. When examining an infant’s middle ear, the nurse should use one hand to stabilize the otoscope against the head while using the other hand to:

    hold the speculum in the canal.

    pull the auricle down and back.

    distract the infant.

    stabilize the chest.

    B

     

     

    Question 72

    To perform the Rinne test, place the tuning fork on the:

    preauricular area.

    mastoid bone.

    top of the head.

    forehead.

    B

     

    Question 73

    Mrs. Britton brings her 16-year-old son in with a complaint that he is not developing correctly into adolescence. Which structures disproportionately enlarge in the male during adolescence?

    C. Mandible and maxilla bones

    B. Hyoid and cricoid cartilages

    D. Nose and thyroid cartilages

    A. Coronal sutures

    C

     

     

     

     

    Question 74

    Mr. Donalds is a 45-year-old roofer. Your inspection to determine color variations of the skin is best conducted:

    B. under fluorescent lighting.

    D. using a Wood’s light.

    C. with illumination provided by daylight.

    A. using an episcope.

    C

     

    Question 75

    Mr. Kevin Marks is a new health care provider. What is the best method to develop cultural competence?

    Realize that all members of a cultural group behave in the same way.

    Ignore one’s own cultural beliefs.

    Realize that cultural values are difficult to change and must be respected.

    Attempt to convince the patient to accept institutional mores.

    C

     

     

     

    Question 76

    Ms. Davis is a 27-year-old patient with a BMI of 33. Based on her BMI, your diagnosis would be:

    extremely obese.

    overweight.

    obese.

    normal body weight.

    C

     

    Question 77

    The most common form of birth trauma of the scalp is:

    cranial bossing.

    torticollis.

    caput succedaneum.

    cephalhematoma.

    C

     

     

    Question 78

    Mr. L. presents to the clinic with severe groin pain and a history of kidney stones. Mr. L.’s son tells you that, for religious reasons, his father wishes to keep any stone that is passed into the urine filter that he has been using. What is your most appropriate response?

    “The stone must be sent to the lab for examination and therefore cannot be kept.”

    “We don’t know yet if your father has another kidney stone, so we must analyze this one.”

    “With your father’s permission, we will examine the stone and request that it be returned to him.”

    “We cannot let him keep his stone because it violates our infection control policy.”

    C

     

     

    Question 79

    Your patient is complaining of acute, intense sharp epigastric pain that radiates to the back and left scapula with nausea and vomiting. Based on this history, your prioritized physical examination should be to:

    inspect for ecchymosis of the flank.

    auscultate for abdominal bruits.

    assess for rebound tenderness.

    percuss for ascites.

    A

     

    Question 80

    Mr. Black is a 44-year-old patient who presents to the clinic with complaints of neck pain that he thinks is from his job involving computer data entry. As the examiner, you are checking the range of motion in his neck and note the greatest degree of cervical mobility is at:

    B. C2 to C3.

    D. C4 to C5.

    A. C1 to C2.

    C. C3 to C4.

    B

     

     

    stion 81

    Which of the following organs is part of the alimentary tract?

    Gallbladder

    Pancreas

    Stomach

    Liver

    C

     

    uestion 82

    You are completing a general physical examination on Mr. Rock, a 39-year-old man with complaints of constipation. When examining a patient with tense abdominal musculature, a helpful technique is to have the patient:

    sit upright.

    hold his or her breath.

    flex his or her knees.

    raise his or her head off the pillow.

    C

     

    estion 83

    Mrs. Berger is a 39-year-old woman who presents with a complaint of epigastric abdominal pain. You have completed the inspection of the abdomen. What is your next step in the assessment process?

    Deep palpation

    Auscultation

    Percussion

    Light palpation

    B

    Question 84

    Placing the base of a vibrating tuning fork on the midline vertex of the patient’s head is a test for:

    lateralization of sound.

    air conduction of sound.

    bone versus air conduction.

    mallear auditory ability.

    A

     

     

    uestion 85

    Before performing an abdominal examination, the examiner should:

    have the patient empty his or her bladder.

    completely disrobe the patient.

    don double gloves.

    ascertain the patient’s HIV status.

    C

     

    George Michaels, a 22-year-old patient, tells the nurse that he is here today to “check his allergies.” He has been having “green nasal discharge” for the last 72 hours. How would the nurse document his reason for seeking care?

    G. M. is a 22-year-old male here for “allergies.”

    G. M. came into the clinic complaining of green discharge for the past 72 hours.

    G. M., a 22-year-old male, states he has allergies and wants them checked.

    G.M. is a 22-year-old male here for having “green nasal discharge” for the past 72 hours.

    D

     

    Question 87

    Your patient presents with symptoms that lead you to suspect acute appendicitis. Which assessment finding is least likely to be associated with this condition early in its course?

    Rebound tenderness

    Consistent right lower quadrant (RLQ pain)

    Positive McBurney sign

    Positive psoas sign

    A

     

    Question 88

    Bulging of an amber tympanic membrane without mobility is most often associated with:

    repeated and prolonged crying cycles.

    middle ear effusion.

    healed tympanic membrane perforation.

    impacted cerumen in the canal.

    B

     

     

    Question 89

    Recommended carbohydrate content of total dietary intake (% total calories) is ____%.

    50

     

    uestion 90

    Unusual white areas on the skin may be due to:

    B. polycythemia.

    A. adrenal disease.

    D. Down syndrome.

    C. vitiligo.

    D

     

    uestion 91

    Auscultation should be carried out last, except when examining the:

    lungs.

    abdomen.

    heart.

    neck area.

    Bb

     

    Question 92

    Penicillin is considered a

    “cold” medicine.

    “hot” medicine.

    “lukewarm” oil.

    “cold” herb.

    Bbb

     

     

    uestion 93

    In examining the neck of a 34-year-old female patient, you note that the uppermost ridge of the tracheal cartilage is at the:

    sternocleidomastoid.

    thyroid.

    hyoid.

    cricoid.

    D

     

     

     

    Question 94

    When assessing abdominal pain in a college-age woman, one must include:

    age at completion of toilet training.

    the first day of the last menstrual period.

    history of interstate travel.

    food likes and dislikes.

    B

     

     

    Question 95

    A detailed description of the symptoms related to the chief complaint is presented in the:

    general patient information section.

    differential diagnosis.

    assessment.

    history of present illness.

    D

     

    Question 96

    Periods of silence during the interview can serve important purposes, such as:

    providing time for reflection.

    increasing the length of the visit.

    promoting calmness.

    allowing the clinician to catch up on documentation.

    D

     

     

    Question 97

    A guideline for history taking is for caregivers to:

    ask direct questions before open-ended questions so that data move from simple to complex.

    ask for a complete history at once so that data are not forgotten between meetings.

    make notes sparingly so that patients can be observed during the history taking.

    write detailed information as stated by patients so that their priorities are reflected.

    C

     

    Question 98

    Tuning forks with a frequency of 500 to 1000 Hz are most commonly used to measure:

    hearing range of normal speech.

    buzzing or tingling sensations.

    noise above the threshold level.

    buzzing from bone conduction.

    A

     

     

    Question 99

    Which is the best way to position a patient’s neck for palpation of the thyroid?

    B. Flexed directly forward

    C. Flexed toward the side being examined

    A. Flexed away from the side being examined

    D. Hyperextended directly backward

    B

     

     

    Question 100

    Which question would be considered a leading question?

    “You don’t get headaches often, do you?”

    “At what time of the day are your headaches the most severe?”

    “On a scale of 1 to 10, how would you rate the severity of your headaches?”

    “What do you think is causing your headaches?”

    A

  • NURS 6512 Assignment 1: Assessment Tools and Diagnostic Tests in Adults and Children Case Study

    Assignment 1: Case Study Assignment: Assessment Tools and Diagnostic Tests in Adults and Children

    When seeking to identify a patient’s health condition, advanced practice nurses can use a diverse selection of diagnostic tests and assessment tools; however, different factors affect the validity and reliability of the results produced by these tests or tools. Nurses must be aware of these factors in order to select the most appropriate test or tool and to accurately interpret the results.

    Not only do these diagnostic tests affect adults, body measurements can provide a general picture of whether a child is receiving adequate nutrition or is at risk for health issues. These data, however, are just one aspect to be considered. Lifestyle, family history, and culture—among other factors—are also relevant. That said, gathering and communicating this information can be a delicate process.

    Photo Credit: Getty Images/Hero Images

    For this Assignment, you will consider the validity and reliability of different assessment tools and diagnostic tests. You will explore issues such as sensitivity, specificity, and positive and negative predictive values. You will also consider examples of children with various weight issues. You will explore how you could effectively gather information and encourage parents and caregivers to be proactive about their children’s health and weight.

    To Prepare

    Review this week’s Learning Resources and consider factors that impact the validity and reliability of various assessment tools and diagnostic tests. You also will review examples of pediatric patients and their families as it relates to BMI.

    By Day 1 of this week, you will be assigned to one of the following Assignment options by your Instructor: Adult Assessment Tools or Diagnostic Tests (option 1), or Child Health Case (Option 2). 
    Note:
     Please see the “Course Announcements” section of the classroom for your assignments from your Instructor.

    Search the Walden Library and credible sources for resources explaining the tool or test you were assigned. What is its purpose, how is it conducted, and what information does it gather?

    Also, as you search the Walden library and credible sources, consider what the literature discusses regarding the validity, reliability, sensitivity, specificity, predictive values, ethical dilemmas, and controversies related to the test or tool.

    If you are assigned Assignment Option 2 (Child), consider what health issues and risks may be relevant to the child in the health example.

    Based on the risks you identified, consider what further information you would need to gain a full understanding of the child’s health. Think about how you could gather this information in a sensitive fashion.

    Consider how you could encourage parents or caregivers to be proactive toward the child’s health.

    The Assignment

    Assignment
     (3–4 pages, not including title and reference pages)
    :

    Assignment Option 1: Adult Assessment Tools or Diagnostic Tests:

    Include the following:

    A description of how the assessment tool or diagnostic test you were assigned is used in healthcare.

    What is its purpose?

    How is it conducted?

    What information does it gather?

    Based on your research, evaluate the test or the tool’s validity and reliability, and explain any issues with sensitivity, reliability, and predictive values. Include references in appropriate APA formatting.

    Assignment Option 2: Child Health Case:

    Include the following:

    An explanation of the health issues and risks that are relevant to the child you were assigned.

    Describe additional information you would need in order to further assess his or her weight-related health.

    Identify and describe any risks and consider what further information you would need to gain a full understanding of the child’s health. Think about how you could gather this information in a sensitive fashion.

    Taking into account the parents’ and caregivers’ potential sensitivities, list at least three specific questions you would ask about the child to gather more information.

    Provide at least two strategies you could employ to encourage the parents or caregivers to be proactive about their child’s health and weight.

    By Day 6 of Week 3

    Submit
     your Assignment.

    Submission and Grading Information

    To submit your completed Assignment for review and grading, do the following:

    Please save your Assignment using the naming convention “WK3Assgn1+last name+first initial.(extension)” as the name.

    Click the 
    Week 3 Assignment 1 Rubric 
    to review the Grading Criteria for the Assignment.

    Click the 
    Week 3 Assignment 1 
    link. You will also be able to “View Rubric” for grading criteria from this area.

    Next, from the Attach File area, click on the 
    Browse My Computer
     button. Find the document you saved as “WK3Assgn1+last name+first initial.(extension)” and click 
    Open
    .

    If applicable: From the Plagiarism Tools area, click the checkbox for 
    I agree to submit my paper(s) to the Global Reference Database
    .

    Click on the 
    Submit
     button to complete your submission.

     

    NURS_6512_Week_3_Assignment_1_Rubric_Option_1

    Grid View

    List View

    Excellent

    Good

    Fair

    Poor

    In 3–4 pages, address the following:

    A description of how the assessment tool or diagnostic test you were assigned is used in healthcare.

    o What is its purpose?

    o How is it conducted?

    o What information does it gather?

    30 
    (30%)
     – 35 
    (35%)

    The response clearly, accurately, and with specific detail describes how the assessment tool or diagnostic test assigned is used in healthcare, including its purpose, how it is conducted, and what information it gathers.

    24 
    (24%)
     – 29 
    (29%)

    The response accurately describes how the assessment tool or diagnostic test assigned is used in healthcare, including its purpose, how it is conducted, and what information it gathers.

    18 
    (18%)
     – 23 
    (23%)

    The response vaguely and/or with some inaccuracy describes how the assessment tool or diagnostic test assigned is used in healthcare, including its purpose, how it is conducted, and what information it gathers.

    0 
    (0%)
     – 17 
    (17%)

    The response is inaccurate or missing descriptions of how the assessment tool or diagnostic test assigned is used in healthcare, including its purpose, how it is conducted, and what information it gathers.

    Based on your research, evaluate the test or the tool’s validity and reliability, and explain any issues with sensitivity, reliability, and predictive values.

    45 
    (45%)
     – 50 
    (50%)

    The response accurately and thoroughly evaluates the test or tool’s validity and reliability, and explains any issues with clear sensitivity, reliability, and predictive values. Student’s research is clear, accurate, and appropriate for the evaluation.

    39 
    (39%)
     – 44 
    (44%)

    The response accurately evaluates the test or tool’s validity and reliability, and explains any issues with sensitivity, reliability, and predictive values. Student’s research is somewhat clear, accurate,and appropriate for the evaluation.

    33 
    (33%)
     – 38 
    (38%)

    The response vaguely and/or with some inaccuracy evaluates the test or tool’s validity and reliability, and explains any issues with some sensitivity, reliability, and predictive values. Student’s research is vague or inaccurate for the evaluation.

    0 
    (0%)
     – 32 
    (32%)

    “The response is inaccurate and/or missing evaluations of the test or tool’s validity and reliability, with explanations of any issues missing or lacking sensitivity, reliability, and predictive values. Student’s research is missing, inaccurate, or lacking for the evaluation.

    Written Expression and Formatting – Paragraph Development and Organization:

    Paragraphs make clear points that support well-developed ideas, flow logically, and demonstrate continuity of ideas. Sentences are carefully focused–neither long and rambling nor short and lacking substance. A clear and comprehensive purpose statement and introduction are provided that delineate all required criteria.

    5 
    (5%)
     – 5 
    (5%)

    Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity. A clear and comprehensive purpose statement, introduction, and conclusion are provided that delineate all required criteria.

    4 
    (4%)
     – 4 
    (4%)

    Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity 80% of the time. Purpose, introduction, and conclusion of the assignment are stated, yet are brief and not descriptive.

    3 
    (3%)
     – 3 
    (3%)

    Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity 60%–79% of the time. Purpose, introduction, and conclusion of the assignment are vague or off topic.

    0 
    (0%)
     – 2 
    (2%)

    Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity < 60% of the time. No purpose statement, introduction, or conclusion were provided. Written Expression and Formatting – English writing standards: Correct grammar, mechanics, and proper punctuation 5  (5%)  – 5  (5%) Uses correct grammar, spelling, and punctuation with no errors. 4  (4%)  – 4  (4%) Contains a few (1 or 2) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors. 3  (3%)  – 3  (3%) Contains several (3 or 4) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors. 0  (0%)  – 2  (2%) Contains many (≥ 5) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors that interfere with the reader’s understanding. Written Expression and Formatting – The paper follows correct APA format for title page, headings, font, spacing, margins, indentations, page numbers, running heads, parenthetical/in-text citations, and reference list. 5  (5%)  – 5  (5%) Uses correct APA format with no errors. 4  (4%)  – 4  (4%) Contains a few (1 or 2) APA format errors. 3  (3%)  – 3  (3%) Contains several (3 or 4) APA format errors. 0  (0%)  – 2  (2%) Contains many (≥ 5) APA format errors. Total Points: 100 NURS_6512_Week_3_Assignment_1_Rubric_Option_2 Grid View List View Excellent Good Fair Poor In 3–4 pages, address the following: An explanation of the health issues and risks that are relevant to the child you were assigned. 20  (20%)  – 25  (25%) The response clearly, accurately, and in detail explains the relevant health issues and risks for the assigned child. 19  (19%)  – 24  (24%) The response accurately explains the relevant health issues and risks for the assigned child. 18  (18%)  – 23  (23%) The response vaguely and with some inaccuracy explains the relevant health issues and risks for the assigned child. 0  (0%)  – 17  (17%) The response is inaccurate and/or missing explanations of the relevant health issues and risks for the assigned child. Describe additional information you would need in order to further assess his or her weight-related health. 20  (20%)  – 25  (25%) The response clearly and accurately describes detailed additional information needed to further assess the child’s weight-related health. 19  (19%)  – 24  (24%) The response accurately describes additional information needed to further assess the child’s weight-related health. 18  (18%)  – 23  (23%) The response vaguely and with some inaccuracy describes additional information needed to further assess the child’s weight-related health. 0  (0%)  – 17  (17%) The response is inaccurate and/or missing a description of additional information needed to further assess the child’s weight-related health. Identify and describe any risks, and consider what further information you would need to gain a full understanding of the child’s health. Think about how you could gather this information in a sensitive fashion. 18  (18%)  – 20  (20%) The response clearly and accurately identifies and describes in detail any risks to the child’s health. The response clearly and accurately identifies and describes in detail further information needed to gain a full understanding of the child’s health, with a detailed explanation of how to gather that information in a way that is sensitive to the child. 16  (16%)  – 17  (17%) The response accurately identifies and describes any risks to the child’s health. The response accurately identifies and describes further information needed to gain a full understanding of the child’s health, with a clear explanation of how to gather that information in a way that is sensitive to the child. 14  (14%)  – 14  (14%) The response vaguely and with some inaccuracy identifies and describes any risks to the child’s health. The response vaguely identifies and describes further information needed to gain a full understanding of the child’s health, with a vague explanation of how to gather that information in a way that is sensitive to the child. 0  (0%)  – 13  (13%) The response identifies inaccurately and/or is missing descriptions of any risks to the child’s health. The response identifies inaccurately and/or is missing descriptions of further information needed to gain a full understanding of the child’s health, with an inadequate or missing explanation of how to gather that information in a way that is sensitive to the child. Taking into account the parents’ and caregivers’ potential sensitivities, list at least three specific questions you would ask about the child to gather more information. 10  (10%)  – 10  (10%) The response clearly and accurately lists three or more specific questions that would gather more information about the child. Specific questions are carefully worded to clearly demonstrate sensitivity to the parent(s) or caregiver(s) of the child. 9  (9%)  – 9  (9%) The response lists three specific questions that would gather more information about the child. Specific questions are worded to demonstrate sensitivity to the parent(s) or caregiver(s) of the child. 8  (8%)  – 8  (8%) The response lists three questions with wording that is vague and lacking specificity for gathering more information about the child. Some wording of the questions lacks sensitivity to the parent(s) or caregiver(s) of the child. 0  (0%)  – 7  (7%) The response lists two or fewer confusing or inadequate questions, or is missing questions, for gathering more information about the child. Wording of questions provided lacks sensitivity to the parent(s) or caregiver(s) of the child. Provide at least two strategies you could employ to encourage the parents or caregivers to be proactive about their child’s health and weight. 5  (5%)  – 5  (5%) The response clearly describes two or more detailed strategies to encourage the parent(s) or caregiver(s) to be proactive about the child’s health and weight. 4  (4%)  – 4  (4%) The response describes at least two strategies to encourage the parent(s) or caregiver(s) to be proactive about the child’s health and weight. 3  (3%)  – 3  (3%) The response vaguely describes two strategies to encourage the parent(s) or caregiver(s) to be proactive about the child’s health and weight. 0  (0%)  – 2  (2%) The response inadequately describes one strategy or is missing strategies to encourage the parent(s) or caregiver(s) to be proactive about the child’s health and weight. Written Expression and Formatting – Paragraph Development and Organization: Paragraphs make clear points that support well-developed ideas, flow logically, and demonstrate continuity of ideas. Sentences are carefully focused–neither long and rambling nor short and lacking substance. A clear and comprehensive purpose statement and introduction are provided that delineate all required criteria. 5  (5%)  – 5  (5%) Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity. A clear and comprehensive purpose statement, introduction, and conclusion are provided that delineate all required criteria. 4  (4%)  – 4  (4%) Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity 80% of the time. Purpose, introduction, and conclusion of the assignment are stated, yet are brief and not descriptive. 3  (3%)  – 3  (3%) Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity 60%–79% of the time. Purpose, introduction, and conclusion of the assignment are vague or off topic. 0  (0%)  – 2  (2%) Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity < 60% of the time. No purpose statement, introduction, or conclusion were provided. Written Expression and Formatting – English writing standards: Correct grammar, mechanics, and proper punctuation 5  (5%)  – 5  (5%) Uses correct grammar, spelling, and punctuation with no errors. 4  (4%)  – 4  (4%) Contains a few (1 or 2) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors. 3  (3%)  – 3  (3%) Contains several (3 or 4) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors. 0  (0%)  – 2  (2%) Contains many (≥ 5) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors that interfere with the reader’s understanding. Written Expression and Formatting – The paper follows correct APA format for title page, headings, font, spacing, margins, indentations, page numbers, running heads, parenthetical/in-text citations, and reference list. 5  (5%)  – 5  (5%) Uses correct APA format with no errors. 4  (4%)  – 4  (4%) Contains a few (1 or 2) APA format errors. 3  (3%)  – 3  (3%) Contains several (3 or 4) APA format errors. 0  (0%)  – 2  (2%) Contains many (≥ 5) APA format errors. Total Points: 100