Tag: Clinical-Nursing

  • NURS 6003 Discussion: Networking Opportunities

    Discussion – Week 1

    COLLAPSE

    I started my career in the healthcare field as an EMT over 20 years ago. I always wanted to be in the health care field, but I didn’t really know what I wanted to be. After not getting into school for sports medicine I was given the advice from a friend’s mother to take an EMT course while I was at the end of high school. After a couple years of that I debated either going to nursing school or paramedic school, which I ultimately decided on paramedic school with the intention I would do that for a couple years then nursing school, well that took 12 with life getting in the way of that. I’ve been a paramedic for the last 17 years and finally decided to go to nursing school 5 years ago with my end goal of being a Family Nurse Practitioner which is what led me here to Walden University.

    I was looking at many programs and actually on the advice of a fellow paramedic who is currently enrolled in an FNP program at another college told me to check it out. Though he decided to go to another school with Walden being his second choice he told me he should have gone here, so why not check it out. Not every school or program are a right fit for everyone.  I believe Walden’s core values and mission is right in line with my goals. (Walden University, 2020) I want to know that the University I pick had my best interest in mind. This program is very intense, and you need to be given the help and resources to succeed. “To produce graduates who are scholarly, reflective practitioners” (Walden University, 2020)

    In picking a program you have to have the confidence that your instructors have the knowledge and background to teach you what you need to know. (Walden University, 2020) You must also be willing to put in the time and effort it takes to make the best practitioner you can. I want to make a difference, no matter how big or small, in the lives of every patients I take care of and this aligns well with Walden’s MSN learning outcomes. “Integratively assess, diagnose, plan, implement, and evaluate cost-effective healthcare strategies that reduce health disparities by patient/population advocacy for access to specialist nursing care.” (Walden University, 2020)

    Networking is a huge part of healthcare. We actually network more then we think we do. “You have to know someone to get that job” is something I hear all the time. I definitely have had the opportunity to gain employment from knowing someone or having them speak to someone about me. “Developing professional relationships, attending professional conferences and utilizing professional networking websites all serve to facilitate the exchange of ideas and information that are vital to keeping a nurse’s knowledge fresh and relevant.” (Schmidt)

    I plan to utilize many academic and professional resources throughout my journey in this program. Academic and professional resources can go hand and hand since those professional resources you have can be great teachers as well. Academic resources will coincide with every class I take from the instructor to whatever resources we are given to study from as well as fellow students. I work alongside some really great mid-level providers that I ask questions of constantly. Though these are professional resources they also guide me to great educational resources since they went through this same process and know what worked for them. To me there is nothing like real world experience and the clinical time I will have during this program is invaluable.

     

    References

    Schmidt, K. (n.d.). 
    5 Reasons Nurses Should Engage in Professional Networking.
    Retrieved June 2020, from BluePipes: https://blog.bluepipes.com/5-reasons-nurses-should-take-professional-networking-seriously/

    Walden University. (2020). 
    Master of Science in Nursing.
     Retrieved June 2020, from Walden University: https://catalog.waldenu.edu/preview_program.php?catoid=172&poid=67151&returnto=62482

    Walden University. (2020). 
    Vision, Mission, and Goals.
     Retrieved June 2020, from Walden University: https://catalog.waldenu.edu/content.php?catoid=172&navoid=59420

     

    Week 1

    COLLAPSE

            Hello my name is xx. I have been a nurse for almost two years in February. I have accomplished numerous awards and accolades in such little time in my career. I am the chair of shared governance and currently working on my RN3. I love what I do serving and advocating for my patients. I currently work on a orthopedic, med surg, trauma, and surgical floor, where we see a lot of gun shot wounds, falls, etc. Previously, I worked at an OBGYN office as a Medical Assistant. After completing nursing school, I decided I would change specialties to gain experience in a different area of nursing.

    As I have been a student my entire life, literally I have been in school since I graduated high school in 2008; I had the desire to be a labor and delivery (L&D) nurse, however, as I stated before after nursing school I decided I would start with med surg and later return to L&D. I have learned through this journey of nursing that you have to have a strong support system. What I love about my company is that they support, train, and equip us to grow in our career. With that being said I was undecided at first which career path I wanted to take. During the time I was a medical assistant, I was leaning toward Nurse Practitioner in Women’s Health. After I became a nurse I thought maybe leadership would be my clinical ladder pathway. After long thought and research, I finally decided that Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) was the way I wanted to go. I chose Family Nurse Practitioner because I want to help prevent patients from going to the hospital and them manage their health as much as possible.

    I am looking forward to becoming an FNP and I chose Walden University because I felt like I would have the support and push I needed to complete this program, pass the boards, and be confident and equipped enough to go out and serve my patients as a Nurse Practitioner. Walden’s mission to produce scholarly graduates that will be agents of social change and providing a diverse and innovative learning environment relates to my academic and professional goals. (2019-2020 Walden University, 2020b). Walden’s MSN program outcomes relates to my academic and professional goals by exemplifying integrity, diversity, professionalism and encouraging me to be creative and enforcing what I learn into my career field. (2019- 2020 Walden University, 2020a).

    I understand having a good support system helps you be more successful, not only in life but also in your career. Having a mentor or a team that supports you, keeps you focused and accountable of reaching your goals. A study also shows that having that extra support and accountability, boosts a student’s competency and confidence (Rush et al., 2019). My academic  team will consist of my student advisor and my instructors for each class. I plan on utilizing my student advisor as a resource here at Walden. I plan on utilizing my instructor to help challenge me in each course so that I can reach my full potential as a student. My professional team will consist of my current Director and a Physician Assistant from my previous job. I have built a rapport with them and I feel that they will also push and challenge me to reach my goals. The Physician Assistant can help me based on her clinical experience and may be my preceptor.

    References

    2019-2020 Walden University Catalog (2020a). Master of Science in Nursing (MSN). https://catalog.waldenu.edu/preview_program.php?catoid=172&poid=67151&returnto=62482

    2019–2020 Walden University Catalog (2020b). Vision, Mission, and Goals.https://catalog.waldenu.edu/content.php?catoid=172

    Rush, K. L., Janke, R., Duchscher, J. E., Phillips, R., & Kaur, S. (2019). Best practices of formal new graduate transition programs: An integrative review. International Journal of Nursing Studies, 94, 139–158. https://doi-org.ezp.waldenulibrary.org/10.1016/j.ijnurstu.2019.02.010

     

     

    Discussion – Week 1

    COLLAPSE

    The vast majority of my nursing experience is within the specialty of critical care. I’ve spent the first five years of my career working full-time within a MICU and SICU at a large community hospital. The population we serve is largely composed of minorities such as Hispanic, African-American, and Portuguese. Many are members of the lower to middle working class with approximately 21% of the population living below the poverty line (United States Census Bureau, 2019). The common denominator among these patients is that they are vulnerable populations and as a result have a higher prevalence of chronic illness, medical noncompliance, and drug addiction. Any of these challenges significantly increase the complexity of nursing care a patient’s chance of finding themselves in an acute care setting.

    Of note I did spend some time working within a Level 1 trauma ED at Rhode Island Hospital in Providence, a city that faces the same challenges as mine but on a much larger metropolitan level.

    When reflecting upon the mission of Walden University I found that it directly applied to my own mission as an advanced practice provider as I endeavor to impact positive social change on a local level within my community
    (
    Vision, Mission, and Goals
    , 2020). I would love to collaborate with local officials and public health professionals in an effort to improve outcomes for vulnerable populations. This principle overlaps the MSN Learning Concepts as we prepare to take the next step in caring for diverse populations within the ever-evolving field of nursing science (
    Master of science in nursing, 2020
    ).

     

    U.S. Census Bureau (2019).
    QuickFacts, New Bedford city, Massachusetts.
    Retrieved from https://www.census.gov/quickfacts/newbedfordcitymassachusetts

    Walden University. (n.d.-a).
    Vision, mission, and goals
    . Retrieved May 31, 2020, from https://catalog.waldenu.edu/content.php?catoid=172&navoid=59420

    Walden University. (n.d.-b).
    MSN learning outcomes
    . Retrieved May 31, 2020, from https://catalog.waldenu.edu/preview_program.php?catoid=172&poid=67151&returnto=59823

  • NURS 6003 Week 1 Discussion: Networking Opportunities

    Mission, Vision, and Personal Goals

    From an early age, I knew I wanted to be in the medical field. I sought out classes, clubs, and activities that aligned with my goals. I really wanted to be a doctor; however, I realized that becoming a doctor required a lot more sacrifice and time than I was willing to give. Thus, I became a nurse because I have always been a people person who enjoys taking care of others. I have been a nurse for 15 years now, and I have truly found my calling. I ventured out of bedside nursing for a while and found that I really missed it. During my nursing career, I found that I was limited in my scope of practice and I could not impact health care as much I wanted to. Being witness to numerous gaps in the health care continuum led me to want a more active role in primary and preventive care. Hence, I decided to further my education and become a family nurse practitioner (FNP).

    I started my journey to become an FNP about 10 years ago. I started the program at another university, but I did not get the support I needed to complete the program. I dropped out of the program and had second thoughts about becoming an FNP. I decided to go into diabetes education at another school and quickly figured out that I was missing out on my calling. This particular school did not offer an FNP program, so I had to drop out again. I was becoming disheartened because most schools would only take a small portion of my transfer credits. However, Walden University was my saving grace. I only had to repeat a couple of classes, and then I would be on my way to finishing my degree. I finished my first didactic class and practicum in 2014 and had to take a long hiatus due to various circumstances. Nevertheless, during my time at Walden, I found that their vision, mission, and goals closely aligned to my own beliefs and goals. Walden’s vision, mission, and goals center around a commitment to producing knowledgeable scholar-practitioners that promote positive social change, and that is exactly what I am striving to be and do (Walden University, n.d.-a).

    Social Change

    I have a passion for people and am working diligently to become an impactful, contributing member of society that assists people to become the best versions of themselves. Because of my desire to influence positive social change, I have started a nonprofit organization that focuses on women, children, and health prevention and promotion. I eventually want to pair my career as an FNP with my nonprofit in order to broaden my reach and become a change-maker that aids in decreasing morbidity and mortality, especially related to preventable diseases and illnesses. This correlates to Walden’s ideology about social change because Walden University (n.d.-a) aims to improve our society by providing education and resources to individuals to assist them in being agents of positive change in our society and their communities. Walden’s emphasis on social change is in-line with other educational institutions that have recognized the importance of social change in nursing and the positive impact the field can have in transforming health care by supporting efforts to promote equality, social justice, and other social issues that improve our society (Read et al., 2016).

    MSN Program Outcomes and Perspectives

    Walden University’s (n.d.-b) MSN program has seven learning outcomes. Two of the outcomes resonated with me and what I hope to accomplish as an FNP. One outcome focuses on advocating for individuals with the goal of closing the health care gap that is experienced by certain individuals and populations. The other outcome focuses on effective communication via various communication methods (Walden University, n.d.-b). I advocate for my patients now and plan to do so when I become an FNP. Also, I am working on being a better communicator. As a leader of a nonprofit and a future FNP, effective communication with others is key. Communication helps relationships to grow and be built and provides a platform to learn others’ points of view. Without effective communication, it would be difficult for an individual or organization to be successful (Kavithanjali, 2020).

    This time around I am excited to finally finish my degree. I am in a different place in life and ready to take on what lies ahead with pursuing my education and furthering my career. Walden University’s vision, mission, goals, and learning outcomes align with my goals to become an FNP. Additionally, their perspective on social change also resonates with me. Through the resources available to me at Walden, I hope to grow my knowledge base, expand my network, and ultimately become a scholar-practitioner.

    References

    Kavithanjali, J. (2020). Art of Effective Communication for Professional Growth and Achievement. Language in India, 20(3), 99.

    Read, C. Y., Pino Betancourt, D. M., & Morrison, C. (2016). Social change: A framework for inclusive leadership development in nursing education. Journal of Nursing Education, 55(3), 164-167. doi:http://dx.doi.org.ezp.waldenulibrary.org/10.3928/01484834-20160216-08

    Walden University. (n.d.-a). Vision, mission, and goals. Retrieved May 31, 2020, from https://catalog.waldenu.edu/content.php?catoid=172&navoid=59420

    Walden University. (n.d.-b). MSN learning outcomes. Retrieved May 31, 2020, from https://catalog.waldenu.edu/preview_program.php?catoid=172&poid=67151&returnto=59823

    Discussion: Networking Opportunities

    In this module, you begin laying the foundation for your academic and professional success. Your efforts begin with a vision that includes your own definition of success. Your vision may vary from those of your colleagues, but this does not mean you have to take these first steps alone.

    Walden University and the College of Nursing also have a vision and mission, which include helping you to make your own vision a reality. Members of your new academic community, such as faculty, support teams, and fellow students, can also be helpful. Current practitioners and other member of the professional community can also help you to clarify your vision.

    This Module’s Discussion asks you to consider how the Walden mission and vision as well as the College of Nursing’s mission and vision apply to your professional and academic goals. You will also begin to identify individuals and teams who can help you along the way as you begin designing the “blueprint”—your Academic Success and Professional Development Plan—that will guide you toward your own vision for academic and professional success.

    To Prepare:

    Review the Walden and College of Nursing mission and vision statements, Walden’s goals and University Outcomes, and the MSN Program Learning Outcomes presented in this Module’s Learning Resources.

    Reflect on your professional and academic goals as they relate to your program/specialization.

    Consider how the information in these resources fit with your own goals and to your becoming a scholar-practitioner.

    Also consider academic and professional individuals and teams with whom you may collaborate in support of your efforts as a student at the university and as a professional within your organization and career.

    By Day 3 of Week 1

    Post
     a brief introduction of yourself to your colleagues. Include an explanation as to how Walden’s vision, mission, goals, and social change initiatives relate to your professional and academic goals and to your becoming a scholar-practitioner. Also include an explanation for how the Walden MSN Program Outcomes and perspectives relate to your professional and academic goals and to your becoming a scholar-practitioner.

    By Day 6 of Week 1

    Respond
     to at least 
    two
     of your colleagues’ posts by suggesting additional individuals and/or teams with whom you wish to collaborate or by offering additional networking strategies.

     

    Discussion – Week 1

    COLLAPSE

    Networking Opportunities

    A Registered Nurse was not on my list of things I wanted to be when I grew up. I became a Medical Assistant first because I needed a stable job that was not in a factory. I’m from a small town in Georgia and most people there work in carpet mills. I wanted something different. This change in profession sparked a fire in me. This was when I discovered my love for the medical field. College was a scary idea for me because I was a high school dropout and could not believe that I could do it. I was lucky to have family that believed in me more than I believed in myself. In 2011 I graduated with my Associates in nursing. This is when my adventure in nursing began.

    My nursing career first started on a renal floor and from there I took notice that nursing had a broad field of needs. When I moved to Detroit, I had the desire to broaden my skills and that is when I stepped into the ER. This is where I found my home. The ER opened a true understanding of serving the community for me. Then with time, experience, and a growing need to be the best nurse I could be has led me to pursuing my masters.

    When deciding on which school to pick I felt a bit overwhelmed. Undergraduate scared me and here I am jumping into the deep end of graduate school. Then I ran across Walden University. Walden’s vision hit home when I read “the degree that it can be applied by its graduates to the immediate solutions of critical societal challenges, thereby advancing the greater global good”,  (
    Vision, Mission, and Goals
    , 2020, Vision section). This statement encouraged me to delve deeper in what Walden had to offer.

    Walden University offered things that aligned with my goals and the flexibility I needed to be successful in my pursuit to becoming a better nurse. I kept debating on what program to pursue because I had several friends who were looking to be Family Nurse Practitioners. This just didn’t feel like a good fit for me. While looking at the list of programs one stuck out to me. The Adult Gerontology Acute Care Nurse Practitioner Program that had a RN track. This track along with outcomes that are practical and that can be applied within my professional development is what I was looking for. The MSN learning outcomes such as, “exhibit ongoing commitment to professional development and value of nursing theories/ethical principles (altruism, autonomy, human dignity, integrity, social justice) in accordance with ethically responsible, legally accountable, specialist nursing practice”, (
    Master of Science in Nursing
    , 2020, Outcomes section) is what helped me choose Walden University. It aligned everything I was looking for in a program.

    The path that I am pursuing has brought me to connect with people who can help me achieve my goals. Unknowingly I had been networking my entire career. I am an inquisitive person that loves to meet people in different aspects of the health care field. This has led me to making connection that I can call on to help while in the program. The article 5 Reasons Nurses Should Engage in Professional Networking states, “every professional connection should be based on interactions that involve knowledge sharing and mutual professional development”, (
    5 Reasons Nurses Should Engage in Professional Networking
    , n.d., para. 5) and here I thought I was just making friends.

    The advancement of my career is important to me and choosing the right college was imperative. The goals and outcomes are in coordination with my desires of becoming a better nurse that can inspire and affect change in my community. Walden University has developed an all-inclusive environment to help me succeed in my academic endeavors such as, writing center, library, online resources, and professional development resources.

    In conclusion having a strong desire to better myself through education so that I can promote change in my community will become reality. I must stick to my path and utilize the resources at disposal and continue to professionally network to  have the support I need.

    References

    5 Reasons Nurses Should Engage in Professional Networking
    . (n.d.). Retrieved June 3, 2020, from 

    5 Reasons Nurses Should Engage in Professional Networking

    Master of Science in Nursing. (2020). Walden University. Retrieved June 3, 2020, from 
    https://catalog.waldenu.edu/preview_program.php?catoid=172

    Vision, Mission, and Goals. (2020). Walden University. Retrieved June 2, 2020, from 
    https://catalog.waldenu.edu/content.php?catoid=172

    NURS_6003_Module01_Week01_Discussion_Rubric

    Grid View

    List View

    Excellent

    Good

    Fair

    Poor

    Main Posting

    45 
    (45%)
     – 50 
    (50%)

    Answers all parts of the discussion question(s) expectations with reflective critical analysis and synthesis of knowledge gained from the course readings for the module and current credible sources. 

    Supported by at least three current, credible sources. 

    Written clearly and concisely with no grammatical or spelling errors and fully adheres to current APA manual writing rules and style.

    40 
    (40%)
     – 44 
    (44%)

    Responds to the discussion question(s) and is reflective with critical analysis and synthesis of knowledge gained from the course readings for the module. 

    At least 75% of post has exceptional depth and breadth. 

    Supported by at least three credible sources. 

    Written clearly and concisely with one or no grammatical or spelling errors and fully adheres to current APA manual writing rules and style.

    35 
    (35%)
     – 39 
    (39%)

    Responds to some of the discussion question(s). 

    One or two criteria are not addressed or are superficially addressed. 

    Is somewhat lacking reflection and critical analysis and synthesis. 

    Somewhat represents knowledge gained from the course readings for the module. 

    Post is cited with two credible sources. 

    Written somewhat concisely; may contain more than two spelling or grammatical errors. 

    Contains some APA formatting errors.

    0 
    (0%)
     – 34 
    (34%)

    Does not respond to the discussion question(s) adequately. 

    Lacks depth or superficially addresses criteria. 

    Lacks reflection and critical analysis and synthesis. 

    Does not represent knowledge gained from the course readings for the module. 

    Contains only one or no credible sources. 

    Not written clearly or concisely. 

    Contains more than two spelling or grammatical errors. 

    Does not adhere to current APA manual writing rules and style.

    Main Post: Timeliness

    10 
    (10%)
     – 10 
    (10%)

    Posts main post by day 3.

    0 
    (0%)
     – 0 
    (0%)

    0 
    (0%)
     – 0 
    (0%)

    0 
    (0%)
     – 0 
    (0%)

    Does not post by day 3.

    First Response

    17 
    (17%)
     – 18 
    (18%)

    Response exhibits synthesis, critical thinking, and application to practice settings. 

    Responds fully to questions posed by faculty. 

    Provides clear, concise opinions and ideas that are supported by at least two scholarly sources. 

    Demonstrates synthesis and understanding of learning objectives. 

    Communication is professional and respectful to colleagues. 

    Responses to faculty questions are fully answered, if posed. 

    Response is effectively written in standard, edited English.

    15 
    (15%)
     – 16 
    (16%)

    Response exhibits critical thinking and application to practice settings. 

    Communication is professional and respectful to colleagues. 

    Responses to faculty questions are answered, if posed. 

    Provides clear, concise opinions and ideas that are supported by two or more credible sources. 

    Response is effectively written in standard, edited English.

    13 
    (13%)
     – 14 
    (14%)

    Response is on topic and may have some depth. 

    Responses posted in the discussion may lack effective professional communication. 

    Responses to faculty questions are somewhat answered, if posed. 

    Response may lack clear, concise opinions and ideas, and a few or no credible sources are cited.

    0 
    (0%)
     – 12 
    (12%)

    Response may not be on topic and lacks depth. 

    Responses posted in the discussion lack effective professional communication. 

    Responses to faculty questions are missing. 

    No credible sources are cited.

    Second Response

    16 
    (16%)
     – 17 
    (17%)

    Response exhibits synthesis, critical thinking, and application to practice settings. 

    Responds fully to questions posed by faculty. 

    Provides clear, concise opinions and ideas that are supported by at least two scholarly sources. 

    Demonstrates synthesis and understanding of learning objectives. 

    Communication is professional and respectful to colleagues. 

    Responses to faculty questions are fully answered, if posed. 

    Response is effectively written in standard, edited English.

    14 
    (14%)
     – 15 
    (15%)

    Response exhibits critical thinking and application to practice settings. 

    Communication is professional and respectful to colleagues. 

    Responses to faculty questions are answered, if posed. 

    Provides clear, concise opinions and ideas that are supported by two or more credible sources. 

    Response is effectively written in standard, edited English.

    12 
    (12%)
     – 13 
    (13%)

    Response is on topic and may have some depth. 

    Responses posted in the discussion may lack effective professional communication. 

    Responses to faculty questions are somewhat answered, if posed. 

    Response may lack clear, concise opinions and ideas, and a few or no credible sources are cited.

    0 
    (0%)
     – 11 
    (11%)

    Response may not be on topic and lacks depth. 

    Responses posted in the discussion lack effective professional communication. 

    Responses to faculty questions are missing. 

    No credible sources are cited.

    Participation

    5 
    (5%)
     – 5 
    (5%)

    Meets requirements for participation by posting on three different days.

    0 
    (0%)
     – 0 
    (0%)

    0 
    (0%)
     – 0 
    (0%)

    0 
    (0%)
     – 0 
    (0%)

    Does not meet requirements for participation by posting on 3 different days.

    Total Points: 100

    Self-introduction, My goals and Walden University vision, mission and social change

    My interest and enthusiasm for nursing first took root and flourished from a research topic I presented in high school. The topic explored the importance of nurses and how the world can be a better place with more nurses. Researching the topic exposed me to the need for nurses, and it was then that I began to realize a desire to engage in the nursing profession as a way of caring for and serving others. I followed up on this interest and obtained my registered nurse practice qualifications six years ago. I currently work as a Clinical Care Leader, a position that has had me use my MSN qualifications. However, I have developed an interest in psychiatric nursing and would wish to develop my professional and academic career towards this direction. I believe that as a psychiatric nurse, I could empathize with the self-loathing, frustration and embarrassment that typically accompanies mental illness. I consider it a privilege to take care of these patients who are emotionally, mentally and spiritually broken, and feel as though they have nowhere to go. Besides that, I feel that the work involved will rarely boring as the patients include complex and difficult personalities who most people cannot deal with.  I shall integrate a social positive change to colleagues and community at large with the training taped from Walden University (Walden University, 2019). Although taking care of these patients will be heartbreaking, frustrating and exhausting, all at once, but also rewarding. In addition, I am looking forward to having a positive impact on my community and helping them get their lives back on track.

    My dreams of practicing as a psychiatric nurse can only be achieved with the right education background. Towards this end, I intend to enroll for the MSN degree program offered at Walden’s University with a psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner specialization. The institution’s mission and vision statements as well as goals indicate an intention to present graduates with the capacity to solve critical societal challenges and positively affect social change. These statements align with my intention to pursue a psychiatric nursing career (Walden University, 2020b). The MSN degree program is designed to allow to continue practicing as a nurse while attending school. Through joining the program, I expect to learn how to conducted assessment, diagnosis, provision of therapy, and medication prescription for persons with substance abuse problems, medical organic brain disorders, and psychiatric disorder. Also, I will acquire advanced skills and practicum training for treating families, groups, adults and children (Walden University, 2020a). In this respect, enrolling for the MSN degree program offered at Walden’s University offers me the opportunity to pursue my career objective of being a psychiatric nurse.

     

    References

    Walden University (2020a). 
    Master of Science in Nursing (MSN) – Psychiatric-Mental Health Nurse Practitioner
    . Retrieved from https://www.waldenu.edu/online-masters-programs/msn-psychiatric-mental-health-nurse-practitioner

    Walden University (2020b). 
    Vision, Mission, and Goals
    . Retrieved from 
    https://catalog.waldenu.edu/content.php?catoid=147&navoid=47257

    Walden University (2019). College of Health sciences. Retrieved from https://catalog.waldenu.edu/preview_program.php?catoid=149&poid=57398&returnto=48220

  • Networking Opportunities Discussion

    Discussion – Week 1

    COLLAPSE

     I’ve been in the medical field for 40 years, however, have only been a nurse for the past 12 of those years. I started my nursing journey when my children were older and in high school, and the timing was right for our family. Because of the later start into my dream field, I dove into it with both feet and swam at lightening speeds to try to become the best nurse I could be, and what I found in myself was that I enjoy and excel at promoting change. I don’t know if that has to do with my age and associated life experiences, or if that was an innate ability in me all along that I was unaware of. I began my nursing career on a medical surgical floor, then transitioned to a hospice unit until it’s closure, and then to ICU. During the past 40 years I have been a CNA, med aide, and clinic manager of a busy urology practice, in addition to the past 12 years as a RN. I always knew I wanted to become a nurse practitioner.

    I began researching schools and programs that were entirely online. I have several friends who have gone to Walden University in the recent past, and spoke very highly of it, so I put this university on my list. As I was searching, some of the most important facets for me are the reputation and ranking of the school, cost, educational level of the professors, and the vision and mission statements. It was easy to cross off several universities for me due to the absence of the important factors I mentioned. Walden University stayed on the top of my list for quite some time. I can honestly say this university meant all of my criteria. Walden’s mission and vision statements spoke to me for several reasons. What I appreciate most about Walden’s mission statement is that it highlights diversity (Walden University, 2020). The topic of diversity is exceedingly important to me for multiple reasons, and so much that I wanted to be sure I was a part of a graduate program that emphasizes and promotes this topic.

    In meeting my personal goals, and reading on Walden’s website in the College of Nursing vision and mission statements, I knew I had found the perfect college for me when I discovered that Walden’s view is not just to feed us knowledge, though that is exceedingly important as a practitioner, but this distinct university desires to move us to become change agents (Walden University, 2020). That is when I knew it was a perfect fit for me and would challenge me as a person and nurse. I want to be challenged to think outside my box, and the knowledge base that I have thus far. This proved evident in the scholar-practitioner portion of the vision and mission statements by stating “have a deep curiosity, drive, and commitment to solve pressing problems in their field” (Walden University, 2020, Vision, Mission, and Goals, para. 3). This is when Walden became my school of choice. It is my belief that as nurses, we are a trusted, revered profession that has a platform to produce change in not only the medical field, but in the world. This is what I desire to be a part of in my life, especially as a practitioner in the future.

    The word networking can be thought of in a negative connotation, thus associated with being a smoothie type person or schmoozing people just to get a desired outcome (Schmidt, n.d.). I was glad this was brought up in this article because I believe nurses are as far removed from exhibiting salesmen or insurance agent schmoozing behavior as anyone could be (Schmidt, n.d.). Professional networking for nurses is a valuable and useful tool that we should be taking advantage of in order to make professional relationships that may lead to career advancements, increased knowledge base, and develop a more powerful voice to effect change (Schmidt, n.d.).

    According to P. Wofford, Founder of Your Nurse Connection, over 70 percent of nursing jobs are secured via professional networking opportunities (Wofford, 2018). We are all aware that social media can be used positively or negatively, and in the case of professional networking, social media is an effective tool (Wofford, 2018).

    I personally belong to several Facebook medical groups, and have enjoyed the networking and exchange of knowledge. Other interesting ways to network as a nurse are becoming an influencer on Instagram or become a blogger, volunteer, attend conferences, have a signature look about you, seek out connections, and have business/networking cards available to exchange with connections made (Wofford, 2018). This article suggests not joining more than 10 social media type groups, and always send a follow-up email after making a connection (Wofford, 2018). Conferences are my personal favorite, and one that I’ve utilized frequently in my nursing career. I have always gained knowledge, and used it to empower my peers or those I supervise. It is the conferences I’ve attended on my own that have afforded be to become a change agent in my nursing career.

    I have chosen the psychiatric mental health nurse practitioner program, not only because I enjoy this field, but because it needs and deserves change. It was my belief that the school I chose would have a great deal to do with the effectiveness of the changes I will be able to execute for the greater good of my profession. Becoming a scholar practitioner will enable and equip me to be able to effect the changes I hope to be a part of in my community regarding mental health advocacy. I have networked with a psychologist in the past who has given me great insight into the challenges surrounding the stigmas associated with the mental health industry, and I believe that has helped me by forming me into a passionate, and non-judgmental nurse to advocate for those struggling with mental health issues.

    References

    Schmidt, K. (n.d.). 5 reasons nurses should engage in professional networking [Blog post]. Retrieved November 14, 2018, from 

    5 Reasons Nurses Should Engage in Professional Networking

    Walden University, 2020, Vision, mission, and goals. In 2019-2020 Walden University catalog. 
    https://catalog.waldenu.edu/content.php?etc

    Walden University. (2020). 
    Scholar practitioner. 
    Retrieved from waldenu.edu/about/who-we-are/scholar-practitioner

    Wofford, P. (2018). 
    10 tips for nurses who hate networking. 
    Retrieved from 
    https://nurse.org/articles/tips-for-nurse-networking/

     

     

    Discussion: Networking Opportunities

    In this module, you begin laying the foundation for your academic and professional success. Your efforts begin with a vision that includes your own definition of success. Your vision may vary from those of your colleagues, but this does not mean you have to take these first steps alone.

    Walden University and the College of Nursing also have a vision and mission, which include helping you to make your own vision a reality. Members of your new academic community, such as faculty, support teams, and fellow students, can also be helpful. Current practitioners and other member of the professional community can also help you to clarify your vision.

    This Module’s Discussion asks you to consider how the Walden mission and vision as well as the College of Nursing’s mission and vision apply to your professional and academic goals. You will also begin to identify individuals and teams who can help you along the way as you begin designing the “blueprint”—your Academic Success and Professional Development Plan—that will guide you toward your own vision for academic and professional success.

    To Prepare:

    Review the Walden and College of Nursing mission and vision statements, Walden’s goals and University Outcomes, and the MSN Program Learning Outcomes presented in this Module’s Learning Resources.

    Reflect on your professional and academic goals as they relate to your program/specialization.

    Consider how the information in these resources fit with your own goals and to your becoming a scholar-practitioner.

    Also consider academic and professional individuals and teams with whom you may collaborate in support of your efforts as a student at the university and as a professional within your organization and career.

    By Day 3 of Week 1

    Post
     a brief introduction of yourself to your colleagues. Include an explanation as to how Walden’s vision, mission, goals, and social change initiatives relate to your professional and academic goals and to your becoming a scholar-practitioner. Also include an explanation for how the Walden MSN Program Outcomes and perspectives relate to your professional and academic goals and to your becoming a scholar-practitioner.

    By Day 6 of Week 1

    Respond
     to at least 
    two
     of your colleagues’ posts by suggesting additional individuals and/or teams with whom you wish to collaborate or by offering additional networking strategies.

     

    NURS_6003_Module01_Week01_Discussion_Rubric

    Grid View

    List View

    Excellent

    Good

    Fair

    Poor

    Main Posting

    45 
    (45%)
     – 50 
    (50%)

    Answers all parts of the discussion question(s) expectations with reflective critical analysis and synthesis of knowledge gained from the course readings for the module and current credible sources.

    Supported by at least three current, credible sources.

    Written clearly and concisely with no grammatical or spelling errors and fully adheres to current APA manual writing rules and style.

    40 
    (40%)
     – 44 
    (44%)

    Responds to the discussion question(s) and is reflective with critical analysis and synthesis of knowledge gained from the course readings for the module.

    At least 75% of post has exceptional depth and breadth.

    Supported by at least three credible sources.

    Written clearly and concisely with one or no grammatical or spelling errors and fully adheres to current APA manual writing rules and style.

    35 
    (35%)
     – 39 
    (39%)

    Responds to some of the discussion question(s).

    One or two criteria are not addressed or are superficially addressed.

    Is somewhat lacking reflection and critical analysis and synthesis.

    Somewhat represents knowledge gained from the course readings for the module.

    Post is cited with two credible sources.

    Written somewhat concisely; may contain more than two spelling or grammatical errors.

    Contains some APA formatting errors.

    0 
    (0%)
     – 34 
    (34%)

    Does not respond to the discussion question(s) adequately.

    Lacks depth or superficially addresses criteria.

    Lacks reflection and critical analysis and synthesis.

    Does not represent knowledge gained from the course readings for the module.

    Contains only one or no credible sources.

    Not written clearly or concisely.

    Contains more than two spelling or grammatical errors.

    Does not adhere to current APA manual writing rules and style.

    Main Post: Timeliness

    10 
    (10%)
     – 10 
    (10%)

    Posts main post by day 3.

    0 
    (0%)
     – 0 
    (0%)

    0 
    (0%)
     – 0 
    (0%)

    0 
    (0%)
     – 0 
    (0%)

    Does not post by day 3.

    First Response

    17 
    (17%)
     – 18 
    (18%)

    Response exhibits synthesis, critical thinking, and application to practice settings.

    Responds fully to questions posed by faculty.

    Provides clear, concise opinions and ideas that are supported by at least two scholarly sources.

    Demonstrates synthesis and understanding of learning objectives.

    Communication is professional and respectful to colleagues.

    Responses to faculty questions are fully answered, if posed.

    Response is effectively written in standard, edited English.

    15 
    (15%)
     – 16 
    (16%)

    Response exhibits critical thinking and application to practice settings.

    Communication is professional and respectful to colleagues.

    Responses to faculty questions are answered, if posed.

    Provides clear, concise opinions and ideas that are supported by two or more credible sources.

    Response is effectively written in standard, edited English.

    13 
    (13%)
     – 14 
    (14%)

    Response is on topic and may have some depth.

    Responses posted in the discussion may lack effective professional communication.

    Responses to faculty questions are somewhat answered, if posed.

    Response may lack clear, concise opinions and ideas, and a few or no credible sources are cited.

    0 
    (0%)
     – 12 
    (12%)

    Response may not be on topic and lacks depth.

    Responses posted in the discussion lack effective professional communication.

    Responses to faculty questions are missing.

    No credible sources are cited.

    Second Response

    16 
    (16%)
     – 17 
    (17%)

    Response exhibits synthesis, critical thinking, and application to practice settings.

    Responds fully to questions posed by faculty.

    Provides clear, concise opinions and ideas that are supported by at least two scholarly sources.

    Demonstrates synthesis and understanding of learning objectives.

    Communication is professional and respectful to colleagues.

    Responses to faculty questions are fully answered, if posed.

    Response is effectively written in standard, edited English.

    14 
    (14%)
     – 15 
    (15%)

    Response exhibits critical thinking and application to practice settings.

    Communication is professional and respectful to colleagues.

    Responses to faculty questions are answered, if posed.

    Provides clear, concise opinions and ideas that are supported by two or more credible sources.

    Response is effectively written in standard, edited English.

    12 
    (12%)
     – 13 
    (13%)

    Response is on topic and may have some depth.

    Responses posted in the discussion may lack effective professional communication.

    Responses to faculty questions are somewhat answered, if posed.

    Response may lack clear, concise opinions and ideas, and a few or no credible sources are cited.

    0 
    (0%)
     – 11 
    (11%)

    Response may not be on topic and lacks depth.

    Responses posted in the discussion lack effective professional communication.

    Responses to faculty questions are missing.

    No credible sources are cited.

    Participation

    5 
    (5%)
     – 5 
    (5%)

    Meets requirements for participation by posting on three different days.

    0 
    (0%)
     – 0 
    (0%)

    0 
    (0%)
     – 0 
    (0%)

    0 
    (0%)
     – 0 
    (0%)

    Does not meet requirements for participation by posting on 3 different days.

    Total Points: 100

     

    response

    Discussion – Week 1

    COLLAPSE

    Hello

    I admire the fact that you have been in this field  so long, I truly think it takes a special person to put the care of others in the forefront. I am curious to know more about your time on the hospice unit as this is something I have wanted to do, but I felt that I may not be able to function with the thought that my patient would eventually pass on. While I do have an understanding that Hospice care is not only comfort care, and it does factor in holistic care. I don’t think I fully understand every thing that Hospice encompasses. I would think that it would aid in improving the quality of life that is left? maybe you could expound on that for me.

    I will not say that I did much research in schools but I did trust my nursing  counterparts when it came to the school that put them first.

    I also read your post and noted your article on professional networking. There was once a time when I just went to work and did my job limiting my conversation to patients, families, doctors and fellow nurses. I didn’t realize prior to becoming a nurse exactly how important it would be to my overall career to have effective communication and networking. I can agree that by networking it opens the door to many other opportunities and aids in securing jobs. Though I did not realize how much planning and preparation went into effective networking. And according to your presented article when networking one should have their career goals in mind (Schmidt, n.d.).

    I also belong to a few Facebook groups that pertain to medical topics, I love how colleagues can come together without putting each other down and spread love and knowledge also, I believe that I have missed many networking opportunities by being ill prepared and not being exactly conscious of my overall goals in the past. I did not began my journey as goal oriented as I have been as of lately. I believe my energy was somewhat misplaced, that is why I am always happy to see someone who has all of their plans lined out such as you. Reading your post I became even more inspired to get my ducks in a row.

    I also commend you on your entrance into the Mental Health practitioner program, you are correct, I do not feel enough focus is placed on mental health as a lot of the issues go undiagnosed, and in some ethnicities there is a stigma assigned to seeking help when it comes to mental health it has been viewed at times as being weak. While I considered the ACAGNP program I feel as though I would like to extend my care across and entire lifespan and not be limited by a specified degree, my whole career has been spent with the elderly, I feel its high time for me to spread some love to the rest of the population.

    References

    Schmidt, K. (n.d.). 5 reasons nurses should engage in professional networking [Blog post]. Retrieved November 14, 2018, from 

    5 Reasons Nurses Should Engage in Professional Networking

    Walden University, 2020, Vision, mission, and goals. In 2019-2020 Walden University catalog. 
    https://catalog.waldenu.edu/content.php?etc

  • Differential Diagnosis for Skin Conditions

    Assignment 1: Lab Assignment: Differential Diagnosis for Skin Conditions

    Photo Credit: Getty Images/iStockphoto

    Properly identifying the cause and type of a patient’s skin condition involves a process of elimination known as differential diagnosis. Using this process, a health professional can take a given set of physical abnormalities, vital signs, health assessment findings, and patient descriptions of symptoms, and incrementally narrow them down until one diagnosis is determined as the most likely cause.

    In this Lab Assignment, you will examine several visual representations of various skin conditions, describe your observations, and use the techniques of differential diagnosis to determine the most likely condition.

    To Prepare

    Review the Skin Conditions document provided in this week’s Learning Resources, and select one condition to closely examine for this Lab Assignment.

    Consider the abnormal physical characteristics you observe in the graphic you selected. How would you describe the characteristics using clinical terminologies?

    Explore different conditions that could be the cause of the skin abnormalities in the graphics you selected.

    Consider which of the conditions is most likely to be the correct diagnosis, and why.

    Search the Walden library for one evidence-based practice, peer-reviewed article based on the skin condition you chose for this Lab Assignment.

    Review the Comprehensive SOAP Exemplar found in this week’s Learning Resources to guide you as you prepare your SOAP note.

    Download the SOAP Template found in this week’s Learning Resources, and use this template to complete this Lab Assignment.

    The Lab Assignment

    Choose one skin condition graphic (identify by number in your Chief Complaint) to document your assignment in the SOAP (Subjective, Objective, Assessment, and Plan) note format rather than the traditional narrative style. Refer to Chapter 2 of the Sullivan text and the Comprehensive SOAP Template in this week’s Learning Resources for guidance. Remember that not all comprehensive SOAP data are included in every patient case.

    Use clinical terminologies to explain the physical characteristics featured in the graphic. Formulate a differential diagnosis of 
    three to five 
    possible conditions for the skin graphic that you chose. Determine which is most likely to be the correct diagnosis and explain your reasoning using at least three different references, one reference from current evidence-based literature from your search and two different references from this week’s Learning Resources.

    By Day 7 of Week 4

    Submit
     your Lab Assignment.

    Submission and Grading Information

    To submit your completed Assignment for review and grading, do the following:

    Please save your Assignment using the naming convention “WK4Assgn1+last name+first initial.(extension)” as the name.

    Click the 
    Week 4 Assignment 1 Rubric 
    to review the Grading Criteria for the Assignment.

    Click the 
    Week 4 Assignment 1
     link. You will also be able to “View Rubric” for grading criteria from this area.

    Next, from the Attach File area, click on the 
    Browse My Computer
     button. Find the document you saved as “WK4Assgn1+last name+first initial.(extension)” and click 
    Open
    .

    If applicable: From the Plagiarism Tools area, click the checkbox for 
    I agree to submit my paper(s) to the Global Reference Database
    .

    Click on the 
    Submit
     button to complete your submission.

    NURS_6512_Week_4_Assignment_1_Rubric

    Grid View

    List View

    Excellent

    Good

    Fair

    Poor

    Using the SOAP (Subjective, Objective, Assessment, and Plan) note format:

    ·  Create documentation, following SOAP format, of your assignment to choose one skin condition graphic (identify by number in your Chief Complaint). ·   Use clinical terminologies to explain the physical characteristics featured in the graphic.

    30 
    (30%)
     – 35 
    (35%)

    The response clearly, accurately, and thoroughly follows the SOAP format to document one skin condition graphic and accurately identifies the graphic by number in the Chief Complaint. The response clearly and thoroughly explains all physical characteristics featured in the graphic using accurate terminologies.

    24 
    (24%)
     – 29 
    (29%)

    The response accurately follows the SOAP format to document one skin condition graphic and accurately identifies the graphic by number in the Chief Complaint. The response explains most physical characteristics featured in the graphic using accurate terminologies.

    18 
    (18%)
     – 23 
    (23%)

    The response follows the SOAP format, with vagueness and some inaccuracy in documenting one skin condition graphic, and accurately identifies the graphic by number in the Chief Complaint. The response explains some physical characteristics featured in the graphic using mostly accurate terminologies.

    0 
    (0%)
     – 17 
    (17%)

    The response inaccurately follows the SOAP format or is missing documentation for one skin condition graphic and is missing or inaccurately identifies the graphic by number in the Chief Complaint. The response explains some or few physical characteristics featured in the graphic using terminologies with multiple inaccuracies.

    ·   Formulate a different diagnosis of three to five possible considerations for the skin graphic.    ·   Determine which is most likely to be the correct diagnosis, and explain your reasoning using at least three different references from current evidence-based literature.

    45 
    (45%)
     – 50 
    (50%)

    The response clearly, thoroughly, and accurately formulates a different diagnosis of five possible considerations for the skin graphic. The response determines the most likely correct diagnosis with reasoning that is explained clearly, accurately, and thoroughly using three or more different references from current evidence-based literature.

    39 
    (39%)
     – 44 
    (44%)

    The response accurately formulates a different diagnosis of three to five possible considerations for the skin graphic. The response determines the most likely correct diagnosis with reasoning that is explained accurately using at least three different references from current evidence-based literature.

    33 
    (33%)
     – 38 
    (38%)

    The response vaguely or with some inaccuracy formulates a different diagnosis of three possible considerations for the skin graphic. The response determines the most likely correct diagnosis with reasoning that is explained vaguely and with some inaccuracy using three different references from current evidence-based literature.

    0 
    (0%)
     – 32 
    (32%)

    The response formulates inaccurately, incompletely, or is missing a different diagnosis of possible considerations for the skin graphic, with two or fewer possible considerations provided. The response vaguely, inaccurately, or incompletely determines the most likely correct diagnosis with reasoning that is missing or explained using two or fewer different references from current evidence-based literature.

    Written Expression and Formatting – Paragraph Development and Organization:

    Paragraphs make clear points that support well-developed ideas, flow logically, and demonstrate continuity of ideas. Sentences are carefully focused–neither long and rambling nor short and lacking substance. A clear and comprehensive purpose statement and introduction are provided that delineate all required criteria.

    5 
    (5%)
     – 5 
    (5%)

    Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity. A clear and comprehensive purpose statement, introduction, and conclusion are provided that delineate all required criteria.

    4 
    (4%)
     – 4 
    (4%)

    Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity 80% of the time. Purpose, introduction, and conclusion of the assignment are stated, yet are brief and not descriptive.

    3 
    (3%)
     – 3 
    (3%)

    Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity 60%–79% of the time. Purpose, introduction, and conclusion of the assignment are vague or off topic.

    0 
    (0%)
     – 2 
    (2%)

    Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity < 60% of the time. No purpose statement, introduction, or conclusion were provided. Written Expression and Formatting – English writing standards: Correct grammar, mechanics, and proper punctuation 5  (5%)  – 5  (5%) Uses correct grammar, spelling, and punctuation with no errors. 4  (4%)  – 4  (4%) Contains a few (1 or 2) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors. 3  (3%)  – 3  (3%) Contains several (3 or 4) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors. 0  (0%)  – 2  (2%) Contains many (≥ 5) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors that interfere with the reader’s understanding. Written Expression and Formatting – The paper follows correct APA format for title page, headings, font, spacing, margins, indentations, page numbers, running heads, parenthetical/in-text citations, and reference list. 5  (5%)  – 5  (5%) Uses correct APA format with no errors. 4  (4%)  – 4  (4%) Contains a few (1 or 2) APA format errors. 3  (3%)  – 3  (3%) Contains several (3 or 4) APA format errors. 0  (0%)  – 2  (2%) Contains many (≥ 5) APA format errors. Total Points: 100

  • Digital Clinical Experience (DCE): Health History Assessment

    Assignment 2: Digital Clinical Experience (DCE): Health History Assessment

    A comprehensive health history is essential to providing quality care for patients across the lifespan, as it helps to properly identify health risks, diagnose patients, and develop individualized treatment plans. To effectively collect these heath histories, you must not only have strong communication skills, but also the ability to quickly establish trust and confidence with your patients. For this DCE Assignment, you begin building your communication and assessment skills as you collect a health history from a volunteer “patient.”

    Photo Credit: Getty Images/Caiaimage

    To Prepare

    Review this week’s Learning Resources as well as the 
    Taking a Health History
     media program, and consider how you might incorporate these strategies. Download and review the Student Checklist: Health History Guide and the History Subjective Data Checklist, provided in this week’s Learning Resources, to guide you through the necessary components of the assessment.

    Access and login to Shadow Health using the link in the left-hand navigation of the Blackboard classroom.

    Review the 
    Shadow Health Student Orientation
     media program and the 
    Useful Tips and Tricks
     document provided in the week’s Learning Resources to guide you through Shadow Health.

    Review the Week 4 DCE Health History Assessment Rubric, provided in the Assignment submission area, for details on completing the Assignment.

    DCE Health History Assessment:

    Complete the following in Shadow Health:

    Orientation

    DCE Orientation (15 minutes)

    Conversation Concept Lab (50 minutes)

    Health History

    Health History of Tina Jones (180 minutes)

    Note
    : Each Shadow Health Assessment may be attempted and reopened as many times as necessary prior to the due date to achieve 80% or better, but you must take all attempts by the Week 4 Day 7 deadline.

    Submission and Grading Information

    No Assignment submission due this week but will be due Day 7, Week 4.

     

    NURS_6512_Week_4_DCE_Assignment_2_Rubric

    Description: Note: To complete the Shadow Health assignments it is helpful to use the text and follow along with each chapter correlating to the area of assessment to assist in covering all the subjective questions. Review the Advanced Health Assessment Nursing Documentation Tutorial located in the Week 4 Resources, the model documentation in Shadow Health, as well as sample documentation in the text to assist with narrative documentation of the assessments. Do not copy any sample documentation as this is plagiarism. Shadow Health exams may be added to or repeated as many times as necessary prior to the due date to assist in achieving the desired score. You must pass this assignment with a total cumulative score of 79.5% or greater in order to pass this course.

    Grid View

    List View

    Excellent

    Good

    Fair

    Poor

    Student DCE score

    (DCE percentages will be calculated automatically by Shadow Health after the assignment is completed.)

    Note: DCE Score – Do not round up on the DCE score.

    56 
    (56%)
     – 60 
    (60%)

    DCE score>93

    51 
    (51%)
     – 55 
    (55%)

    DCE Score 86-92

    46 
    (46%)
     – 50 
    (50%)

    DCE Score 80-85

    0 
    (0%)
     – 45 
    (45%)

    DCE Score <79 No DCE completed. Subjective Documentation in Provider Notes Subjective narrative documentation in Provider Notes is detailed and organized and includes: Chief Complaint (CC), HPI, Current Medications, Allergies, Past Medical History, Family History, Social History and Review of Systems (ROS) ROS: covers all body systems that may help you formulate a list of differential diagnoses. You should list each system as follows: General: Head: EENT: etc. You should list these in bullet format and document the systems in order from head to toe. 36  (36%)  – 40  (40%) Documentation is detailed and organized with all pertinent information noted in professional language. Documentation includes all pertinent documentation to include Chief Complaint (CC), HPI, Current Medications, Allergies, Past Medical History, Family History, Social History and Review of Systems (ROS). 31  (31%)  – 35  (35%) Documentation with sufficient details, some organization and some pertinent information noted in professional language. Documentation provides some of the Chief Complaint (CC), HPI, Current Medications, Allergies, Past Medical History, Family History, Social History and Review of Systems (ROS). 26  (26%)  – 30  (30%) Documentation with inadequate details and/or organization; and inadequate pertinent information noted in professional language. Limited or/minimum documentation provided to analyze students critical thinking abilities for the Chief Complaint (CC), HPI, Current Medications, Allergies, Past Medical History, Family History, Social History and Review of Systems (ROS). 0  (0%)  – 25  (25%) Documentation lacks any details and/or organization; and does not provide pertinent information noted in professional language. No information is provided for the Chief Complaint (CC), HPI, Current Medications, Allergies, Past Medical History, Family History, Social History and Review of Systems (ROS). or No documentation provided. Total Points: 100 Name: NURS_6512_Week_4_DCE_Assignment_2_Rubric Description: Note: To complete the Shadow Health assignments it is helpful to use the text and follow along with each chapter correlating to the area of assessment to assist in covering all the subjective questions. Review the Advanced Health Assessment Nursing Documentation Tutorial located in the Week 4 Resources, the model documentation in Shadow Health, as well as sample documentation in the text to assist with narrative documentation of the assessments. Do not copy any sample documentation as this is plagiarism. Shadow Health exams may be added to or repeated as many times as necessary prior to the due date to assist in achieving the desired score. You must pass this assignment with a total cumulative score of 79.5% or greater in order to pass this course.

  • NURS 6501 Advanced Pathophysiology Module 4 Knowledge Check

    Question 1

    Needs Grading

    A 67-year-old Caucasian woman was brought to the clinic by her son who stated that his mother had become slightly confused over the past several days. She had been stumbling at home and had fallen once but was able to ambulate with some difficulty. She had no other obvious problems and had been eating and drinking. The son became concerned when she forgot her son’s name, so he thought he better bring her to the clinic.

    PMH-Type II diabetes mellitus (DM) with peripheral neuropathy x 20 years. COPD. Depression after death of spouse several months ago

    Social/family hx – non contributary except for 30 pack/year history tobacco use.

    Meds: Metformin 500 mg po BID, ASA 81 mg po qam, escitalopram (Lexapro) 5 mg po q am started 2 months ago

    Labs-CBC WNL; Chem 7- Glucose-92 mg/dl, BUN 18 mg/dl, Creatinine 1.1 mg/dl, Na
    +
    120 mmol/L,

    K
    +
    4.2 mmol/L, CO
    2
    37 m mol/L, Cl
    –
    97 mmol/L.

    The APRN refers the patient to the ED and called endocrinology for a consult for diagnosis and management of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH).

     

    Question:

    Define SIADH and identify any patient characteristics that may have contributed to the development of SIADH.

     

    Correct Answer:

     

    SIADH is a group of symptoms that occurs when antidiuretic hormone (ADH, arginine vasopressin) is secreted in the absence of osmotic or physiologic stimuli. These stimuli include: Increased serum osmolality, decreased plasma volume, and hypotension. A decrease in plasma osmolality normally inhibits ADH production and secretion. SIADH is characterized by fluid retention, dilutional hyponatremia, hypochloremia, concentrated urine, and lack of intravascular volume depletion. SIADH is characterized by normal to increased blood volume in normoproteinemia, nonedematous, and hyponatremic patients with normal renal and endocrine function. ADH regulates the body’s water balance. It is synthesized in the hypothalamus and stored in the posterior pituitary gland. When released into the circulation, it acts on the kidney’s distal tubules and collecting ducts, increasing their permeability to water. This decreases urine volume because more water is being reabsorbed and returned to the circulation. It also serves to produce more concentrated urine.

    Question 2

    Needs Grading

    A 43-year-old female presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of fever, chills, nausea and vomiting and weakness. She has been unable to keep any food, liquids or medications down. The symptoms began 3 days ago and have not responded to ibuprofen, acetaminophen, or Nyquil when she tried to take them. The temperature has reached as high as 102˚F.

     

    Allergies: none known to drugs or food or environmental

     

    Medications-20 mg prednisone po qd, omeprazole 10 po qam

     

    PMH-significant for 20-year history of steroid dependent rheumatoid arthritis (RA). GERD. No other significant illnesses or surgeries.

     

    Social-denies alcohol, illicit drugs, vaping, tobacco use

     

    Physical exam

     

    Thin, ill appearing woman who is sitting in exam room chair as she said she was too weak to climb on the exam table. VS Temp 101.2˚F, BP 98/64, pulse 110, Resp 16, PaO
    2
     96% on room air.

     

    ROS negative other than GI symptoms.

     

    Based on the patient’s clinical presentation, the APRN diagnoses the patient as having secondary hypocortisolism due to the lack of prednisone the patient was taking for her RA secondary to vomiting.

     

    Question:

     

    Explain why the patient exhibited these symptoms? 

    Correct Answer:

     

    An adrenal insufficiency requires some type of trigger or stressor such as surgery, trauma, infection or acute withdrawal of glucocorticoids. The patient had several factors contributing to her present situation. She had RA x 20 years that necessitated oral prednisone. Increased levels of both glucocorticoids (primarily cortisol) and mineralocorticoids (primarily aldosterone) are needed for the body to adapt to the stress Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) from the hypothalamus eventually prompts release of ACTH from the anterior pituitary gland. ACTH then stimulates release and 3 synthesis of cortisol from the adrenal cortex. Cortisol mobilizes amino acids from skeletal muscle and generally enhances the liver’s capacity for gluconeogenesis as well as enhances normal immune activity and maintenance of cardiovascular integrity. It also influences fat, carbohydrate and protein. Catecholamines cause vasoconstriction, which in the kidney, probably initiates release of renin, stimulating the rennin-angiotensionaldosterone-system (RAAS). Antidiuretic hormone (ADH, also called vasopressin), is released from the hypothalamus and posterior pituitary during periods of stress. Both aldosterone and ADH attempt to conserve water and electrolytes to sustain a sufficient vascular volume.

    Question 3

    Needs Grading

    A 64-year-old Caucasian female presents to the clinic with vague symptoms of non- specific abdominal pain, myalgias, constipation, polyuria, and says she feels “fuzzy headed” much of the time. She had about of kidney stones a few weeks ago and she fortunately was able to pass the small stones without requiring lithotripsy or other interventions. She was told by the urologist to follow up with her primary care provider after the kidney stones has resolved.

    The APRN examining the patient orders a Chem 7 which revealed a serum Ca++ of 13.1 mg/dl. The APN believes the patient has primary hyperparathyroidism and refers the patient to an endocrinologist who does a complete work up and concurs with the APRN’s diagnosis.

    Question:

    What is the role of parathyroid hormone in the development of primary hyperparathyroidism? 

    Correct Answer:

     

    Primary hyperparathyroidism is the unregulated overproduction of parathyroid hormone (PTH) resulting in abnormal calcium balance. PTH secretion is increased and is not under the usual feedback control mechanisms. The Ca++ level in the blood increase because of increased resorption and GI absorption of calcium but fails to inhibit PTH secretion at normal levels of calcium because the feedback threshold for calcium is set at a higher level in the abnormal parathyroid tissues. Hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia are the clinical hallmarks of hyperparathyroidism.

    Question 4

    Needs Grading

    A 64-year-old Caucasian female presents to the clinic with vague symptoms of non- specific abdominal pain, myalgias, constipation, polyuria, and says she feels “fuzzy headed” much of the time. She had a fracture of her right metatarsal without trauma and currently is wearing a walking boot. She also had a bout of kidney stones a few weeks ago and she fortunately was able to pass the small stones without requiring lithotripsy or other interventions. She was told by the urologist to follow up with her primary care provider after the kidney stones has resolved.

     

    The APRN examining the patient orders a Chem 12 which revealed a serum Ca++ of 13.1 mg/dl. The APRN believes the patient has primary hyperparathyroidism and refers the patient to an endocrinologist who does a complete work up and concurs with the APRN’s diagnosis.

     

    Question 1 of 2:

     

    Explain the processes involved in the formation of renal stones in patients with hyperparathyroidism. 

    Correct Answer:

     

    Increased renal filtration load of calcium leads to hypercalciuria. Hypercalcemia also affects proximal renal tubular functions, causing metabolic acidosis and production of abnormally alkaline urine. PTH hypersecretion enhances real phosphate excretion and results in hypophosphatemia and hyperphosphatemia. The combination of hypercalciuria, alkaline urine, and hyperphosphaturia leads to the formation of renal stones

    Question 5

    Needs Grading

    A 64-year-old Caucasian female presents to the clinic with vague symptoms of non- specific abdominal pain, myalgias, constipation, polyuria, and says she feels “fuzzy headed” much of the time. She had a fracture of her right metatarsal without trauma and currently is wearing a walking boot. She also had a bout of kidney stones a few weeks ago and she fortunately was able to pass the small stones without requiring lithotripsy or other interventions. She was told by the urologist to follow up with her primary care provider after the kidney stones has resolved.

    The APRN examining the patient orders a Chem 12 which revealed a serum Ca++ of 13.1 mg/dl. The APRN believes the patient has primary hyperparathyroidism and refers the patient to an endocrinologist who does a complete work up and concurs with the APRN’s diagnosis.

    Question 2 of 2:

    Explain how a patient with hyperparathyroidism is at risk for bone fractures.  

    Correct Answer:

     

    Excessive osteoclastic and osteocytic activity results in increased bone reabsorption that weakens the bone. Kyphosis of the dorsal spine and compression fractures of the vertebral bodies are also seen in patients with hyperparathyroidism.

    Question 6

    Needs Grading

    A 64-year-old Caucasian female who is 4 weeks status post total parathyroidectomy with forearm gland insertion presents to the general surgeon for her post-operative checkup. She states that her mouth feels numb and she feels “tingly all over. The surgeon suspects the patient has hypoparathyroidism secondary to the parathyroidectomy with delayed vascularization of the implanted gland. She orders a Chem 20 to determine what electrolyte abnormalities may be present. The labs reveal a serum Ca++ of 7.1 mg/dl (normal 8.5 mg/dl-10.5 mg/dl) and phosphorous level of 5.6 mg/dl (normal 2.4-4.1 mg/dl).

     

    Question:

     

    What serious consequences of hypoparathyroidism occur and why? 

    Correct Answer:

     

    Hypoparathyroidism occurs when there is destruction of the parathyroid glands (autoimmune, surgical), abnormal parathyroid gland development, altered regulation of PTH production, or impaired PTH action. The acute manifestations of hypoparathyroidism (postsurgical hypoparathyroidism) are due to acute hypocalcemia.  The hallmark of acute hypocalcemia is tetany, which is a disorder of neuromuscular irritability. The symptoms of tetany may be mild (perioral numbness, paresthesia of the hands and feet, muscle cramps) or severe (carpopedal spasm, laryngospasm, and focal or generalized seizures, which must be distinguished from the generalized tonic muscle contractions that occur in severe tetany). The classic physical findings in patients with neuromuscular irritability due to latent tetany are Trousseau’s and Chvostek’s signs.

    Question 7

    Needs Grading

    A 17-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician’s office by his parents who are concerned about their son’s weight loss despite eating more, frequent urination, unquenchable thirst, and fatigue that is interfering with his school/work activities. He had been seemingly healthy until about 3 months ago when his parents started noticing these symptoms but put these symptoms down to his busy schedule including a part time job. He admits to sleeping more and tires very easily. He denies any other symptoms.

     

    PMH-noncontributory. No surgeries or major medical problems. Usual colds and ear infections as a child

     

    Allergies-none know

     

    Family history- maternal uncle with “some kind of sugar diabetes problem” but parents unclear on the exact disease process

     

    Social-denies alcohol, tobacco or illicit drug use. Not sexually active. Junior at local high school and works in a fast food store after school and on weekends.

     

    Labs in office: random glucose 220 mg/dl.

     

    Based on his symptoms and the glucose level, the pediatrician makes a tentative diagnosis of Diabetes Mellitus type 1 and refers the boy and his parents to an endocrinologist for further work up and management plan.

     

    Question 1 of 6:

     

    The patient exhibited classic signs of Type 1 diabetes. Explain the pathophysiology of “polydipsia.”

    Correct Answer:

     

    Because elevated blood glucose levels, water is osmotically attracted from body cells which results in intracellular dehydration and hypothalamic stimulation of thirst.

    Question 8

    Needs Grading

    A 17-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician’s office by his parents who are concerned about their son’s weight loss despite eating more, frequent urination, unquenchable thirst, and fatigue that is interfering with his school/work activities. He had been seemingly healthy until about 3 months ago when his parents started noticing these symptoms but put these symptoms down to his busy schedule including a part time job. He admits to sleeping more and tires very easily. He denies any other symptoms.

     

    PMH-noncontributory. No surgeries or major medical problems. Usual colds and ear infections as a child

     

    Allergies-none know

     

    Family history- maternal uncle with “some kind of sugar diabetes problem” but parents unclear on the exact disease process

     

    Social-denies alcohol, tobacco or illicit drug use. Not sexually active. Junior at local high school and works in a fast food store after school and on weekends.

     

    Labs in office: random glucose 220 mg/dl.

     

    Based on his symptoms and the glucose level, the pediatrician makes a tentative diagnosis of Diabetes Mellitus type 1 and refers the boy and his parents to an endocrinologist for further work up and management plan.

    Question 2 of 6:

     

    The patient exhibited classic signs of Type 1 diabetes. Explain the pathophysiology of “polyuria.”

    Correct Answer:

     

    Hyperglycemia acts as an osmotic diuretic. The amount of glucose filtered by the glomeruli of the kidneys exceeds the amount that can be reabsorbed by the renal tubules. Glycosuria results accompanied by large amounts of water lost in the urine.

    Question 9

    Needs Grading

    A 17-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician’s office by his parents who are concerned about their son’s weight loss despite eating more, frequent urination, unquenchable thirst, and fatigue that is interfering with his school/work activities. He had been seemingly healthy until about 3 months ago when his parents started noticing these symptoms but put these symptoms down to his busy schedule including a part time job. He admits to sleeping more and tires very easily. He denies any other symptoms.

    PMH-noncontributory. No surgeries or major medical problems. Usual colds and ear infections as a child

    Allergies-none know

    Family history- maternal uncle with “some kind of sugar diabetes problem” but parents unclear on the exact disease process

    Social-denies alcohol, tobacco or illicit drug use. Not sexually active. Junior at local high school and works in a fast food store after school and on weekends.

    Labs in office: random glucose 220 mg/dl.

    Based on his symptoms and the glucose level, the pediatrician makes a tentative diagnosis of Diabetes Mellitus type 1 and refers the boy and his parents to an endocrinologist for further work up and management plan.

    Question 3 of 6:

    The patient exhibited classic signs of Type 1 diabetes. Explain the pathophysiology of “polyphagia.”

    Correct Answer:

     

    Depletion of cellular stores of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins results in cellular starvation and a corresponding increase in hunger.

    Question 10

    Needs Grading

    A 17-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician’s office by his parents who are concerned about their son’s weight loss despite eating more, frequent urination, unquenchable thirst, and fatigue that is interfering with his school/work activities. He had been seemingly healthy until about 3 months ago when his parents started noticing these symptoms but put these symptoms down to his busy schedule including a part time job. He admits to sleeping more and tires very easily. He denies any other symptoms.

     

    PMH-noncontributory. No surgeries or major medical problems. Usual colds and ear infections as a child

     

    Allergies-none know

     

    Family history- maternal uncle with “some kind of sugar diabetes problem” but parents unclear on the exact disease process

     

    Social-denies alcohol, tobacco or illicit drug use. Not sexually active. Junior at local high school and works in a fast food store after school and on weekends.

     

    Labs in office: random glucose 220 mg/dl.

     

    Based on his symptoms and the glucose level, the pediatrician makes a tentative diagnosis of Diabetes Mellitus type 1 and refers the boy and his parents to an endocrinologist for further work up and management plan.

    Question 4 of 6:

    The patient exhibited classic signs of Type 1 diabetes. Explain the pathophysiology of “weight loss.”

    Correct Answer:

     

    Weight loss occurs because of fluid loss in osmotic diuresis and the loss of body tissue as fat and proteins are used for energy as a result of the effects of insulin deficiency.

    Question 11

    Needs Grading

    A 17-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician’s office by his parents who are concerned about their son’s weight loss despite eating more, frequent urination, unquenchable thirst, and fatigue that is interfering with his school/work activities. He had been seemingly healthy until about 3 months ago when his parents started noticing these symptoms but put these symptoms down to his busy schedule including a part time job. He admits to sleeping more and tires very easily. He denies any other symptoms.

    PMH-noncontributory. No surgeries or major medical problems. Usual colds and ear infections as a child

    Allergies-none know

    Family history- maternal uncle with “some kind of sugar diabetes problem” but parents unclear on the exact disease process

    Social-denies alcohol, tobacco or illicit drug use. Not sexually active. Junior at local high school and works in a fast food store after school and on weekends.

    Labs in office: random glucose 220 mg/dl.

    Based on his symptoms and the glucose level, the pediatrician makes a tentative diagnosis of Diabetes Mellitus type 1 and refers the boy and his parents to an endocrinologist for further work up and management plan.

    Question 5 of 6:

    The patient exhibited classic signs of Type 1 diabetes. Explain the pathophysiology of “fatigue.”

    Correct Answer:

     

    Metabolic change result in poor use of food products, contributing to lethargy and fatigue. Sleep loss from severe nocturia also contributes to fatigue.

    Question 12

    Needs Grading

    A 17-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician’s office by his parents who are concerned about their son’s weight loss despite eating more, frequent urination, unquenchable thirst, and fatigue that is interfering with his school/work activities. He had been seemingly healthy until about 3 months ago when his parents started noticing these symptoms but put these symptoms down to his busy schedule including a part time job. He admits to sleeping more and tires very easily. He denies any other symptoms.

    PMH-noncontributory. No surgeries or major medical problems. Usual colds and ear infections as a child

    Allergies-none know

    Family history- maternal uncle with “some kind of sugar diabetes problem” but parents unclear on the exact disease process

    Social-denies alcohol, tobacco or illicit drug use. Not sexually active. Junior at local high school and works in a fast food store after school and on weekends.

    Labs in office: random glucose 220 mg/dl.

    Based on his symptoms and the glucose level, the pediatrician makes a tentative diagnosis of Diabetes Mellitus type 1 and refers the boy and his parents to an endocrinologist for further work up and management plan.

    Question 6 of 6:

    How do genetics and environmental factors contribute to the development of Type 1 diabetes?

    Correct Answer:

     

    Islet cell autoantibodies (ICAs) were detected in serum from patients with autoimmune polyendocrine deficiency. They have subsequently been identified in 85 percent of patients with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes and in prediabetic people.

    Autoantigens form on insulin producing beta cells and circulate in the blood and lymphatics. This leads to processing and presentation of autoantigen by antigen presenting cells

    There is activation of T helper 1 lymphocytes and T helper 2 lymphocytes There is activation of macrophages that release IL-1 and TNFα and activation of autoantigen specific T cytotoxic CD8 cells.

    There is activation of B lymphocytes to produce islet cell autoantibodies and antiGAD65 antibodies. This cascade results in destruction of beta cells with decreased insulin production.

    Question 13

    Needs Grading

    A 17-year-old boy recently diagnosed with Type I diabetes is brought to the pediatrician’s office by his parents with a chief complaint of “having the flu”. His symptoms began 2 days ago, and he has vomited several times and has not eaten very much. He can’t remember if he took his prescribed insulin for several days because he felt so sick. Random glucose in the office reveals glucose 560 mg/dl and the pediatrician made arrangements for the patient to be admitted to the hospitalist service with an endocrinology consult.

     

    BP 124/80mmHg; HR 122bpm; Respirations 32 breaths/min; Temp 97.2˚F; PaO
    2
    97% on RA

     

    Admission labs: Hgb 14.6 g/dl; Hct 58%

     

    CMP- Na+ 122mmol/L; K+ 5.3mmol/L; Glucose 560mg/dl; BUN 52mg/dl; Creatinine 4.9mg/dl;

     

    Cl- 95mmol/L; Ca++ 8.8mmol/L; AST (SGOT) 248U/L; ALT 198U/L; CK 34/35 IU/L; Cholesterol 198mg/dl;

     

    Phosphorus 6.8mg/dl; Acetone Moderate; LDH38U/L; Alkaline Phosphatase 132U/L.

     

    Arterial blood gas values were as follows: pH 7.09; Paco220mm Hg; Po2100mm Hg; Sao2 98% (room air)

     

    HCO3-7.5mmol/L; anion gap 19.4

     

    A diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis was made, and the patient was transferred to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) for close monitoring.

     

    Question:

     

    The hormones involved in intermediary metabolism, exclusive of insulin, that can participate in the development of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) are epinephrine, glucagon, cortisol, growth hormone. Describe how they participate in the development of DKA.

    Correct Answer:

     

    The most important concept is that DKA is caused by insulin deficiency and an increase in counterregulatory hormones that include glucagon, catecholamines, cortisol, and growth hormone. These counter regulatory hormones normally antagonize insulin buy increasing glucose production and decreasing tissue use of glucose. Insulin deficiency results in decreased glucose uptake, increased fat mobilization with release of fatty acids and accelerated gluconeogenesis, glycogenesis, and ketogenesis. In the absence of insulin, the release of free fatty acids from adipocytes increases production of ketone bodies by the mitochondria of the liver that exceeds peripheral use. Accumulation of ketone bodies causes a drop in pH and triggers the buffering system associated with metabolic acidosis. Hyperketonemia may result from impaired use of ketones by peripheral tissue, which permits strong organic acids to circulate freely. Bicarbonate buffering then does not occur and the individual develops a metabolic acidosis.

    Question 14

    Needs Grading

    A 67-year-old African American male presents to the clinic with a chief complaint that he has to “go to the bathroom all the time and I feel really weak.” He states that this has been going on for about 3 days but couldn’t come to the clinic sooner as he went to the Wound Care clinic for a dressing change to his right great toe that has been chronically infected, and he now has osteomyelitis. Patient with known Type II diabetes with poor control. His last HgA1
    C 
    was 10.2 %. He says he can’t afford the insulin he was prescribed and only takes half of the oral agent he was prescribed. Random glucose in the office revealed glucose of 890 mg/dl. He was immediately referred to the ED by the APRN for evaluation of suspected hyperosmolar hyperglycemic non ketotic syndrome (HHNKS). Also called hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state (HHS).

     

    Question:

     

    Explain the underlying processes that lead to HHNKS or HHS.

    Correct Answer:

     

    HHNKS differs from DKA in the degree of insulin deficiency (more profound I DKA) and the elevation of glucose levels and degree of fluid deficiency which are more marked in HHKS.

    The basic underlying mechanism of HHS is a relative reduction in effective circulating insulin with a concomitant rise in counterregulatory hormones. Unlike patients with DKA, most patients with HHS do not develop significant ketoacidosis. Insulin remains available in amounts sufficient to inhibit lipolysis and ketogenesis but insufficient to prevent hyperglycemia. Hyperosmolarity itself may also decrease lipolysis, limiting the amount of free fatty acids available for ketogenesis.

    Patients with HHS have a very high serum glucose concentration, a near normal serum bicarbonate level and pH, a serum osmolarity that is usually greater than 320 mOsm/L (normal 275–295 mOsm/L), and either absent or low levels of ketones in both the urine and serum. Electrolyte imbalances are common, with severe potassium deficits that need to be corrected, usually over several days. Phosphorous and sodium replacement may also be needed.

    Question 15

    Needs Grading

    A 32-year-old woman presented to the clinic complaining of weight gain, swelling in her legs and ankles and a puffy face. She also recently developed hypertension and diabetes type 2. She noted poor short-term memory, irritability, excess hair growth (women), red-ruddy face, extra fat around her neck, fatigue, poor concentration, and menstrual irregularity in addition to muscle weakness. Given her physical appearance and history, a tentative diagnosis of hypercortical function was made. Diagnostics included serum and urinary cortisol and serum adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). MRI revealed a pituitary adenoma.

     

    Question:

     

    How would you differentiate Cushing’s disease from Cushing’s syndrome? 

    Correct Answer:

     

    Cushing’s syndrome is a rare disease that is caused by the over production of cortisol by the adrenal glands. This can be caused by a tumor of the adrenal glands, the lungs, or the pituitary gland. When the tumor produces too much ACTH, it causes over production of cortisol by the adrenal glands. If the source is the pituitary, it is called Cushing’s disease. Cushing’s disease occurs more often in women than men and more often occurs between the ages of 20 and 40.

    ACTH dependent hypercortisolism, the excess ACTH stimulates excess production of cortisol and loss of the negative feedback control of ACTH secretion. People with Cushing’s syndrome do not have diurnal or circadian secretion patterns of ACTH and cortisol, and they do not increase ACTH and cortisol secretion in response to stressors.

    Question 16

    Needs Grading

    A 47-year-old female is referred to the endocrinologist for evaluation of her chronically elevated blood pressure, hypokalemia, and hypervolemia. The patient’s hypertension has been refractory to the usual medications such as beta blockers, diuretics, and angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors. After a full work up including serum and urinary electrolyte levels, aldosterone suppression test, plasma aldosterone to renin ratio, and MRI which revealed an autonomous adenoma, the endocrinologist diagnoses the patient with primary hyper-aldosteronism.

     

    Question:

     

    What is the pathogenesis of primary hyper-aldosteronism? 

    Correct Answer:

     

    Primary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by either hyperactivity in one adrenal gland (unilateral disease) or both (bilateral disease). Unilateral disease is usually caused by an aldosterone producing adenoma (benign tumor) and less commonly by adrenal cancer or hyperplasia (when the whole gland is hyperactive). Excessive autonomous secretion of aldosterone without its principle regulator, angiotension II, causes hypokalemia and induces insulin resistance; promotes inflammation, endothelial dysfunction, and cardiovascular remodeling (increased left ventricular wall and carotid intima thickness. It also affects adipose tissue differentiation and function. Therefore, primary hyperaldosteronism can influence the features of metabolic syndrome, including hypertension, obesity, dyslipidemia, insulin resistance and hyperglycemia.

    Question 17

    Needs Grading

    A 47-year-old African American male presents to the clinic with chief complaints of polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, and weight loss. He also said that his vison occasionally blurs and that his feet sometimes feel numb.  He has increased hunger despite weight loss and admits to feeling unusually tired. He also complains of “swelling” and enlargement of his abdomen.

     

    Past Medical History (PMH) significant for HTN fairly well controlled with and ACE inhibitor; central obesity, and dyslipidemia treated with a statin, Review of systems negative except for chief complaint. Physical exam unremarkable except for decreased filament test both feet. Random glucose in office 290 mg/dl. The APRN diagnoses the patient with type II DM and prescribes oral medication to control the glucose level and also referred the patient to a dietician for dietary teaching.

     

    Question:

     

    What is the basic underlying pathophysiology of Type II DM? 

    Correct Answer:

     

    There are very complex interactions that result in the development of Type II diabetes. The pathophysiology of type 2 diabetes mellitus is characterized by peripheral insulin resistance, impaired regulation of hepatic glucose production, and declining β-cell function, eventually leading toβ -cell failure. Type 2 diabetes mellitus consists of a constellation of dysfunctions characterized by hyperglycemia and resulting from the combination of resistance to insulin action, inadequate insulin secretion, and excessive or inappropriate glucagon secretion. It is often associated with obesity.

    Question 18

    Needs Grading

    A 21-year-old male was involved in a motorcycle accident and sustained a closed head injury. He is waking up and interacting with his family and medical team. He complained of thirst that doesn’t seem to go away no matter how much water he drinks. The nurses note that he has had 3500 cc of pale-yellow urine in the last 24 hours. Urine was sent for osmolality which was reported as 122 mOsm/L. A diagnosis of probable neurogenic diabetes insipidus was made.

     

    Question:

     

    What causes diabetes insipidus (DI)? 

    Correct Answer:

     

    Diabetes insipidus (DI) is defined as the passage of large volumes (>3 L/24 hr) of dilute urine (< 300 mOsm/kg). There are 2 major forms: Central (neurogenic, pituitary, or neurohypophyseal) DI, characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH; also referred to as arginine vasopressin [AVP]). Nephrogenic DI characterized by decreased ability to concentrate urine because of resistance to ADH action in the kidney. AVP is the primary determinant of free water excretion in the body. Its main target is the kidney, where it acts by altering the water permeability of the cortical and medullary collecting tubules. Water is reabsorbed by osmotic equilibration with the hypertonic interstitium and returned to the systemic circulation. Question 19 Needs Grading A 43-year-old female patient presents to the clinic with complaints of nervousness, racing heartbeat, anxiety, increased perspiration, heat intolerance, hyperactivity and palpitations. She states she had had the symptoms for several months but attributed the symptoms to beginning to care for her elderly mother who has Alzheimer’s Disease. She has lost 15 pounds in the last 3 months without dieting. Her past medical history is significant for rheumatoid arthritis that she has had for the last 10 years well controlled with methotrexate and prednisone. Physical exam is remarkable for periorbital edema, warm silky feeling skin, and palpable thyroid nodules in both lobes of the thyroid. Pending laboratory diagnostics, the APRN diagnoses the patient as having hyperthyroidism, also called Graves’ Disease.   Question:   Explain how the negative feedback loop controls thyroid levels. Correct Answer:   Hyperthyroidism is a set of disorders that involve excessive synthesis and secretion of thyroid hormones T3 and T4. This unregulated release causes a hypermetabolic state that can lead to a serious condition called thyrotoxicosis. The thyroid gland is regulated by thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) from the pituitary gland, which, in turn, is regulated by the hypothalamus via a negative feedback loop. Calcitonin, a hormone that affects blood calcium levels, is also secreted by the thyroid gland. Hyperthyroidism is known as Graves’ Disease. Genetic factors interacting with the environment triggers play an important role in the pathogenesis. It is classified as an autoimmune disease and often goes along with other autoimmune diseases. It results  from a failure of the feedback system. Normally, the secretion of thyroid hormone is controlled by a complex feedback mechanism involving the interaction of stimulatory and inhibitory factors (see the image below). Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus stimulates the pituitary to release TSH. In Graves’ disease, a circulating autoantibody against the thyrotropin receptor provides continuous stimulation of the thyroid gland. This stimulatory immunoglobulin has been called long-acting thyroid stimulator (LATS), thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin (TSI), thyroid-stimulating antibody (TSab), and TSH-receptor antibody (TRab). These antibodies stimulate the production and release of thyroid hormones and thyroglobulin. Question 20 Needs Grading A 43-year-old female patient with known Graves’ Disease presents to the clinic with complaints of nervousness, racing heartbeat, anxiety, increased perspiration, heat intolerance, hyperactivity and severe palpitations. She states she had been given a prescription for propylthiouracil, an antithyroid medication but she did not fill the prescription as she claims she lost it. She had been given the option of thyroidectomy which she declined. She also notes that she is having trouble with her vision and often has blurry eyes. She states that her eyes seem “to bug out of her face”. She has had recurrent outs of nausea and vomiting. She was recently hospitalized for pneumonia.  Physical exam is significant for obvious exophthalmos and pretibial myxedema. Vital signs are temp 101.2˚F, HR 138 and irregular, BP 160/60 mmHg. Respirations 24. Electrocardiogram revealed atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response. The APRN recognizes the patient is experiencing symptoms of thyrotoxic crisis, also called thyroid storm. The patient was immediately transported to a hospital for critical care management.   Question:   How did the patient develop thyroid storm? What were the patient factors that lead to the development of thyroid storm?  Correct Answer:   Thyroid storm is a hypermetabolic state induced by excessive release of thyroid hormones (THs) in individuals with thyrotoxicosis. Individuals may be undiagnosed or undertreated when they develop the symptoms. The symptoms are caused by the sudden release and action of thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3) that exceeds metabolic demands. Symptoms must be rapidly treated in order to prevent life threatening complications such as high output heart failure, hyperthermia, delirium and hypovolemia from excessive vomiting. Question 21 Needs Grading A 44-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of extreme fatigue, weight gain, decreased appetite, cold intolerance, dry skin, hair loss, and sleepiness. She also admits that she often bursts into tears without any reason and has been exceptionally forgetful. Her vision is occasionally blurry, and she admits to being depressed without any social or occupational triggers. Past medical history noncontributory. Physical exam Temp 96.2˚F, pulse 62 and regular, BP 108/90, respirations. Dull facial expression with coarse facial features. Periorbital puffiness noted. Based on the clinical history and physical exam, and pending laboratory data, the ARNP diagnoses the patient with hypothyroidism.   Question:   What causes hypothyroidism?  Correct Answer:   Patients with primary hypothyroidism have elevated TSH levels and decreased free hormone levels. Patients with elevated TSH levels (usually 4.5- 10.0 mIU/L) but normal free hormone levels or estimates are considered to have mild or subclinical hypothyroidism. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis known as Hashimoto’s disease. Primary hypothyroidism is essentially the only disease that is characterized by sustained rises in TSH levels. As the TSH level increases early in the disease, conversion of T4 to T3 increases, maintaining T3 levels. In early hypothyroidism, TSH levels are elevated, T4 levels are normal to low, and T3 levels are normal. Question 22 Needs Grading A 44-year-old woman is brought to the clinic by her husband who says his wife has had some mental status changes over the past few days. The patient had been previously diagnosed with hypothyroidism and had been placed on thyroid replacement therapy but had been lost to follow-up due to moving to another city for the husband’s work approximately 4 months ago. The patient states she lost the prescription bottle during the move and didn’t bother to have the prescription filled since she was feeling better. Physical exam revealed non-pitting, boggy edema around her eyes, hands and feet as well as the supraclavicular area. The APRN recognizes this patient had severe myxedema and referred the patient to the hospital for medical management.   Question:   What causes myxedema coma?  Correct Answer:   In a patient with underlying hypothyroidism, inciting factors responsible for developing myxedema coma are numerous and include infection, trauma, cold exposure, or medications such as sedatives and anesthetics. Although most individuals are not comatose, they are at risk for significant cardiovascular and pulmonary complications. Patients will exhibit severe hypothermia without shivering, hypoventilation, hypotension, hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis ad coma. Question 23 Needs Grading A 53-year-old woman presents to the primary care clinic with complaints of severe headaches, palpitations, high blood pressure and diaphoresis. She relates that these symptoms come in clusters and when she has these “spells”, she also experiences, tremor, nausea, weakness, anxiety, and a sense of doom and dread, epigastric pain, and flank pain. She had one of these spells when she was at the pharmacy and the pharmacist took her blood pressure which was recorded as 200/118. The pharmacist recommended that she immediately be evaluated for these symptoms. Past medical history significant for a family history of neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1). Based on the presenting symptoms and family history of NF1, the APRN suspects the patient has a pheochromocytoma. Laboratory data and computerized tomography of the abdomen confirms the diagnosis. Question 1 of 2:   What is a pheochromocytoma and how does it cause the classic symptoms the patient presented with?  Correct Answer:   Pheochromocytoma is an endocrine tumor of the adrenal gland that continuously secretes catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine) in an uncontrolled fashion. Hypertension results from increase peripheral vascular resistance and may be sustained or paroxysmal. Because of excessive catecholamine secretion, pheochromocytomas may precipitate life-threatening hypertension or cardiac arrhythmias. Hypermetabolism and sweating are related to chronic activation of sympathetic receptors in adipocytes, hepatocytes and other tissue. Glucose intolerance may happen because of catecholamine induced inhibition of insulin release by the pancreas. Catecholamines produced by pheochromocytomas are metabolized within chromaffin cells. Norepinephrine is metabolized to normetanephrine and epinephrine is metabolized to metanephrine. Because this process occurs within the tumor, independently of catecholamine release, pheochromocytomas are best diagnosed by measurement of these metabolites rather than by measurement of the parent catecholamines. Question 24 Needs Grading A 53-year-old woman presents to the primary care clinic with complaints of severe headaches, palpitations, high blood pressure and diaphoresis. She relates that these symptoms come in clusters and when she has these “spells”, she also experiences, tremor, nausea, weakness, anxiety, and a sense of doom and dread, epigastric pain, and flank pain. She had one of these spells when she was at the pharmacy and the pharmacist took her blood pressure which was recorded as 200/118. The pharmacist recommended that she immediately be evaluated for these symptoms. Past medical history significant for a family history of neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1). Based on the presenting symptoms and family history of NF1, the APRN suspects the patient has a pheochromocytoma. Laboratory data and computerized tomography of the abdomen confirms the diagnosis. Question 2 of 2: What are the treatment goals for managing pheochromocytoma?  Correct Answer:   Preoperative blockade of hormonally functional pheochromocytoma and paraganglioma (PPGL) to prevent cardiovascular complications is recommended, along with preoperative medical treatment to normalize blood pressure and heart rate and a  high-sodium diet with fluid intake to prevent severe hypotension after removal of the tumor. Blood pressure, heart rate, and glucose levels should be monitored immediately after surgery. Minimally invasive (e.g., laparoscopic) adrenalectomy should be performed for most adrenal pheochromocytomas, with open resection reserved for very large or invasive pheochromocytomas; open resection is suggested for paragangliomas, but laparoscopic resection is an option for smaller tumors; partial adrenalectomy is also an option for certain patients. Surgical resection of the tumor is the treatment of choice for pheochromocytoma and usually results in cure of the hypertension. Careful preoperative management is required to control blood pressure, correct fluid volume, and prevent intraoperative hypertensive crises.

  • NURS 6512 Discussion: Diversity and Health Assessments

    Discussion: Diversity and Health Assessments

    May 2012, Alice Randall wrote an article for 
    The New York Times
     on the cultural factors that encouraged black women to maintain a weight above what is considered healthy. Randall explained—from her observations and her personal experience as a black woman—that many African-American communities and cultures consider women who are overweight to be more beautiful and desirable than women at a healthier weight. As she put it, “Many black women are fat because we want to be” (Randall, 2012).

    Photo Credit: Getty Images

    Randall’s statements sparked a great deal of controversy and debate; however, they emphasize an underlying reality in the healthcare field: different populations, cultures, and groups have diverse beliefs and practices that impact their health. Nurses and healthcare professionals should be aware of this reality and adapt their health assessment techniques and recommendations to accommodate diversity.

    In this Discussion, you will consider different socioeconomic, spiritual, lifestyle, and other cultural factors that should be taken into considerations when building a health history for patients with diverse backgrounds. Your Instructor will assign a case study to you for this Discussion.

    To prepare:

    Reflect on your experiences as a nurse and on the information provided in this week’s Learning Resources on diversity issues in health assessments.

    By Day 1 of this week, you will be assigned a case study by your Instructor. 
    Note
    : Please see the “Course Announcements” section of the classroom for your case study assignment.

    Reflect on the specific socioeconomic, spiritual, lifestyle, and other cultural factors related to the health of the patient assigned to you.

    Consider how you would build a health history for the patient. What questions would you ask, and how would you frame them to be sensitive to the patient’s background, lifestyle, and culture? Develop five targeted questions you would ask the patient to build his or her health history and to assess his or her health risks.

    Think about the challenges associated with communicating with patients from a variety of specific populations. What strategies can you as a nurse employ to be sensitive to different cultural factors while gathering the pertinent information?

    By Day 3 of Week 2

    Post
     an explanation of the specific socioeconomic, spiritual, lifestyle, and other cultural factors associated with the patient you were assigned. Explain the issues that you would need to be sensitive to when interacting with the patient, and why. Provide at least five targeted questions you would ask the patient to build his or her health history and to assess his or her health risks.

    Note:
     For this Discussion, you are required to complete your initial post before you will be able to view and respond to your colleagues’ postings. Begin by clicking on the “Post to Discussion Question” link, and then select “Create Thread” to complete your initial post. Remember, once you click on Submit, you cannot delete or edit your own posts, and you cannot post anonymously. Please check your post carefully before clicking on 
    Submit!

    Read
     a selection of your colleagues’ responses.

    By Day 6 of Week 2

    Respond on or before Day 6
     
    on 2 different days
     to at least
     two
     of your colleagues who were assigned a different patient than you. Critique your colleague’s targeted questions, and explain how the patient might interpret these questions. Explain whether any of the questions would apply to your patient, and why.

     

    NURS_6512_Week_2_Discussion_Rubric

    Grid View

    List View

    Excellent

    Good

    Fair

    Poor

    Main Posting

    45 
    (45%)
     – 50 
    (50%)

    “Answers all parts of the Discussion question(s) with reflective critical analysis and synthesis of knowledge gained from the course readings for the module and current credible sources. Supported by at least three current, credible sources. Written clearly and concisely with no grammatical or spelling errors and fully adheres to current APA manual writing rules and style.

    40 
    (40%)
     – 44 
    (44%)

    “Responds to the Discussion question(s) and is reflective with critical analysis and synthesis of knowledge gained from the course readings for the module. At least 75% of post has exceptional depth and breadth. Supported by at least three credible sources. Written clearly and concisely with one or no grammatical or spelling errors and fully adheres to current APA manual writing rules and style.

    35 
    (35%)
     – 39 
    (39%)

    “Responds to some of the Discussion question(s). One or two criteria are not addressed or are superficially addressed. Is somewhat lacking reflection and critical analysis and synthesis. Somewhat represents knowledge gained from the course readings for the module. Post is cited with two credible sources. Written somewhat concisely; may contain more than two spelling or grammatical errors. Contains some APA formatting errors.

    0 
    (0%)
     – 34 
    (34%)

    “Does not respond to the Discussion question(s) adequately. Lacks depth or superficially addresses criteria. Lacks reflection and critical analysis and synthesis. Does not represent knowledge gained from the course readings for the module. Contains only one or no credible sources. Not written clearly or concisely. Contains more than two spelling or grammatical errors. Does not adhere to current APA manual writing rules and style.

    Main Post: Timeliness

    10 
    (10%)
     – 10 
    (10%)

    Posts main post by Day 3.

    0 
    (0%)
     – 0 
    (0%)

    N/A

    0 
    (0%)
     – 0 
    (0%)

    N/A

    0 
    (0%)
     – 0 
    (0%)

    Does not post main post by Day 3.

    First Response

    17 
    (17%)
     – 18 
    (18%)

    “Response exhibits synthesis, critical thinking, and application to practice settings. Provides clear, concise opinions and ideas that are supported by at least two scholarly sources. Demonstrates synthesis and understanding of Learning Objectives. Communication is professional and respectful to colleagues. Responses to faculty questions are fully answered, if posed. Response is effectively written in standard, edited English.

    15 
    (15%)
     – 16 
    (16%)

    “Response exhibits critical thinking and application to practice settings. Communication is professional and respectful to colleagues. Responses to faculty questions are answered, if posed. Provides clear, concise opinions and ideas that are supported by two or more credible sources. Response is effectively written in standard, edited English.

    13 
    (13%)
     – 14 
    (14%)

    “Response is on topic and may have some depth. Responses posted in the Discussion may lack effective professional communication. Responses to faculty questions are somewhat answered, if posed. Response may lack clear, concise opinions and ideas, and a few or no credible sources are cited.

    0 
    (0%)
     – 12 
    (12%)

    “Response may not be on topic and lacks depth. Responses posted in the Discussion lack effective professional communication. Responses to faculty questions are missing. No credible sources are cited.

    Second Response

    16 
    (16%)
     – 17 
    (17%)

    “Response exhibits synthesis, critical thinking, and application to practice settings. Provides clear, concise opinions and ideas that are supported by at least two scholarly sources. Demonstrates synthesis and understanding of Learning Objectives. Communication is professional and respectful to colleagues. Responses to faculty questions are fully answered, if posed. Response is effectively written in standard, edited English.

    14 
    (14%)
     – 15 
    (15%)

    “Response exhibits critical thinking and application to practice settings. Communication is professional and respectful to colleagues. Responses to faculty questions are answered, if posed. Provides clear, concise opinions and ideas that are supported by two or more credible sources. Response is effectively written in standard, edited English.

    12 
    (12%)
     – 13 
    (13%)

    “Response is on topic and may have some depth. Responses posted in the Discussion may lack effective professional communication. Responses to faculty questions are somewhat answered, if posed. Response may lack clear, concise opinions and ideas, and a few or no credible sources are cited.

    0 
    (0%)
     – 11 
    (11%)

    “Response may not be on topic and lacks depth. Responses posted in the Discussion lack effective professional communication. Responses to faculty questions are missing. No credible sources are cited.

    Participation

    5 
    (5%)
     – 5 
    (5%)

    Meets requirements for participation by posting on three different days.

    0 
    (0%)
     – 0 
    (0%)

    N/A

    0 
    (0%)
     – 0 
    (0%)

    N/A

    0 
    (0%)
     – 0 
    (0%)

    Does not meet requirements for participation by posting on three different days.

    Total Points: 100

  • NURS 6512 Advanced Health Assessment midterm exam questions and answers

    NURS-6512F-23-Advanced Health Assessment midterm

    93%

     

     

    Question 1

    Percussing at the right midclavicular line, below the umbilicus, and continuing upward is the correct technique for locating the:

    descending aorta.

    lower liver border.

    upper right kidney ridge.

    medial border of the spleen.

    B

     

     

     

     

    Question 2

    Mrs. G. reports an increase in her alcohol intake over the past 5 years. To screen her for problem drinking, you would use the:

    PACES assessment.

    Miller Analogies Test.

    Glasgow Coma Scale.

    CAGE questionnaire.

    D

     

     

    Question 3

    A brief statement of the reason the patient is seeking health care is called the:

    chief complaint.

    diagnosis.

    medical history.

    assessment.

    A

     

     

    Question 4

    A 5-year-old child presents with nasal congestion and a headache. To assess for sinus tenderness you should palpate over the:

    sphenoid and frontal sinuses.

    maxillary and frontal sinuses.

    sphenoid sinuses only.

    maxillary sinuses only.

    D

     

     

     

    Question 5

    Which statement is true regarding the relationship of physical characteristics and culture?

    To be a member of a specific culture, an individual must have certain identifiable physical characteristics.

    Physical characteristics should be used to identify members of cultural groups.

    Gender and race are the two essential physical characteristics used to identify cultural groups.

    There is a difference between distinguishing cultural characteristics and distinguishing physical characteristics.

    D

     

     

    Question 6

    Inspection of the abdomen should begin with the patient supine and the examiner:

    standing at the foot of the table.

    seated on the patient’s right.

    walking around the table.

    standing at the patient’s left.

    B

     

     

     

    uestion 7

    Ms. Otten is a 45-year-old patient who presents with a complaint of weight gain. Which medication is frequently associated with weight gain?

    Steroids

    Laxatives

    Oral hypoglycemics

    Diuretics

    A

     

     

    Question 8

    During physical examination of a 30-year-old Chinese man, you notice slight asymmetry of his face. The cranial nerve examination is normal. Your best action is to:

    B. perform monofilament testing on the face.

    D. record the finding in the patient’s chart.

    A. ask the patient if this characteristic runs in his family.

    C. consult with the physician regarding laboratory tests needed.

    C

     

     

     

    Question 9

    A fixed image of any group that rejects its potential for originality or individuality is known as a(n):

    norm.

    acculturation.

    stereotype.

    ethnos.

    C

     

    Question 10

    Tangential lighting is best used for inspecting skin:

    exudates.

    color.

    contour.

    symmetry.

    C

     

     

     

     

    Question 11

    Mrs. Britton is a 34-year-old patient who presents to the office with complaints of skin rashes. You have noted a 4′ 3-cm, rough, elevated area of psoriasis. This is an example of a:

    B. patch.

    D. papule.

    C. macule.

    A. plaque.

    D

     

     

     

    Question 12

    During an interview, tears appear in the patient’s eyes and his voice becomes shaky. Initially, you should:

    ask the patient what he is upset about.

    ask him if he would like some time alone.

    offer a tissue and let him know it is all right to cry.

    explain to the patient that you will be able to help him more if he can control his emotions.

    C

     

     

     

     

    Question 13

    When communicating with older children and teenagers, you should be sensitive to their:

    typical reluctance to talk.

    natural urge to communicate.

    need for verbal instructions.

    desire for adult companionship.

    A

    Question 14

    Expected hair distribution changes in older adults include:

    increased terminal hair follicles to the tragus of men’s ears.

    more prominent axillary and pubic hair production.

    increased terminal hair follicles on the scalp.

    more prominent peripheral extremity hair production.

    A

     

     

     

    Question 15

    The examiner’s evaluation of a patient’s mental status belongs in the:

    physical examination.

    review of systems.

    history of present illness.

    patient education.

    Aa

     

     

     

     

     

     

    Question 16

    When examining the skull of a 4-month-old baby, you should normally find:

    D. overlap of cranial bones.

    A. closure of the anterior fontanel.

    C. ossification of all sutures.

    B. closure of the posterior fontanel.

    D

     

     

     

     

    Question 17

    You are using an ophthalmoscope to examine a patient’s inner eye. You rotate the lens selector clockwise, then counterclockwise to compensate for:

    astigmatism.

    strabismus.

    amblyopia.

    myopia.

    D

     

     

     

     

     

     

    Question 18

    The most superior part of the stomach is the:

    pyloric orifice.

     

    body.

    pylorus.

    fundus.

    D

     

     

     

     

     

     

    Question 19

    Brittle nails are typical findings in:

    D. older adults.

    C. pregnant women.

    A. adolescents.

    B. infants.

    Older adults

     

     

     

     

    Question 20

    Which of the following is the most vital nutrient?

    Fat

    Protein

    Water

    Carbohydrate

    C

     

     

     

     

    Question 21

    A tool used to screen adolescents for alcoholism is the:

    HITS.

    CAGE.

    CRAFFT.

    PACES.

    C

     

     

     

     

     

     

    Question 22

    When taking a history, you should:

    use a holistic and eclectic structure.

    start the interview with the patient’s family history.

    ask the patient to give you any information they can recall about their health.

    use a chronologic and sequential framework.

    D

     

     

     

     

     

     

    Question 23

    Ms. G. is being seen for her routine physical examination. She is a college graduate and president of a research firm. Although her exact salary is unknown, she has adequate health insurance. Most of the above information is part of Ms. G.’s _____ history.

    past medical

    family

    personal and social

    present problem

    C

     

     

     

     

    Question 24

    Mr. Williams, age 25, has recovered recently from an upper and lower respiratory infection. He describes a long-standing nasal dripping. He is seeking treatment for a mild hearing loss that has not gone away. Information concerning his chronic postnasal drip should be documented within which section of his history?

    Past medical data

    Age-specific data

    Social history

    Past surgical data

    A

     

     

     

     

    Question 25

    Mr. Jones is a 45-year-old patient who presents for a physical examination. On examination, you note costochondral beading, enlarged skull, and bowed legs and diagnose him with rickets. A deficiency of which fat-soluble micronutrient can result in rickets?

    Vitamin  K

    Vitamin E

    Vitamin A

    Vitamin D

    D

     

    Question 26

    Mrs. Grace is a 58-year-old patient who has a diagnosis of pernicious anemia. Which B vitamin is deficient in patients with pernicious anemia?

    B1

    B2

    B6

    B12

    D

     

     

     

    Question 27

    After thorough inspection of the abdomen, the next assessment step is:

    percussion.

    palpation.

    rectal examination.

    auscultation.

    D

     

     

     

    Question 28

    You are examining a pregnant patient and have noted a vascular lesion. When you blanche over the vascular lesion, the site blanches and refills evenly from the center outward. The nurse documents this lesion as a:

    A. telangiectasia.

    C. petechiae.

    B. spider angioma.

    D. purpura.

    C

     

     

     

     

     

    Question 29

    Which of the following is the most accurate reflection of an individual’s food intake?

    Serum protein assays

    Food diary

    Twenty-four-hour diet recall

    Computerized nutrient analysis

    B

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

    Question 30

    Mr. Abdul is a 40-year-old Middle Eastern man who presents to the office for a first visit with the complaint of new abdominal pain. You are concerned about violating a cultural prohibition when you prepare to do his rectal examination. The best tactic would be to:

    ask a colleague from the same geographic area if this examination is acceptable.

    inform the patient of the reason for the examination and ask if it is acceptable to him.

    forego the examination for fear of violating cultural norms.

    refer the patient to a provider more knowledgeable about cultural differences.

    B

     

     

     

     

     

     

    Question 31

    Tracheal tug suggests the presence of a(n):

    enlarged thyroid.

    thoracic carcinoma.

    swallowing disorder.

    aortic aneurysm.

    D

     

     

     

    Question 32

    As you explain your patient’s condition to her husband, you notice that he is leaning toward you and pointedly blinking his eyes. Knowing that he is from England, your most appropriate response to this behavior is to:

    tell him that you understand his need to be alone.

    ask whether he would prefer to speak to the clinician.

    tell him that it is all right to be angry.

    ask whether he has any questions.

    D

     

     

     

     

    Question 33

    When hearing is evaluated, which cranial nerve is being tested?

    IV

    VIII

    III

    XII

    B

     

     

     

     

     

    Question 34

    Nuchal rigidity is most commonly associated with:

    A. thyroiditis.

    C. Down syndrome.

    D. cranial nerve V damage.

    B. meningeal irritation.

    D

     

     

     

    Question 35

    The attitudes of the health care professional:

    are difficult for the patient to sense.

    are largely irrelevant to the success of relationships with the patient.

    do not influence patient behavior.

    are culturally derived.

    D

     

     

    Question 36

    Macronutrients are so named because they:

    form long chemical chains.

    have high molecular weights.

    are required in large amounts.

    tend to increase waist measurements.

    C

     

     

     

     

    Question 37

    White, rounded, or oval ulcerations surrounded by a red halo and found on the oral mucosa are:

    aphthous ulcers.

    Fordyce spots.

    leukoedema.

    Stensen ducts.

    A

     

     

     

    Question 38

    Which type of speculum should be used to examine a patient’s tympanic membrane?

    The shortest speculum available

    The smallest speculum that will illuminate the ear

    Any speculum that will fit the otoscope head

    The largest speculum that will fit comfortably in the ear

    D

     

     

    uestion 39

    To correctly document absent bowel sounds, one must listen continuously for:

    5 minutes.

    1 minute.

    30 seconds.

    3 minutes.

    A

     

     

     

     

    Question 40

    Which part of the information contained in the patient’s record may be used in court?

    Objective information only

    All information

    Diagnostic information only

    Subjective information only

    B

     

     

     

    Question 41

    A flat, nonpalpable lesion is described as a macule if the diameter is:

    greater than 1 cm.

    less than 1 cm.

    3 cm exactly.

    too irregular to measure.

    B

     

     

     

    Question 42

    Knowledge of the culture or cultures represented by the patient should be used to:

    help make the interview questions more pertinent.

    draw conclusions regarding individual patient needs.

    form stereotypical categories.

    form a sense of the patient.

    A

     

     

     

    The review of systems is a component of the:

    health history.

    assessment.

    physical examination.

    past medical/surgical history.

    A

     

     

     

     

     

    Question 44

    Mr. Akins is a 78-year-old patient who presents to the clinic with complaints of hearing loss. Which of the following are changes in hearing that occur in the elderly? Select all that apply.

    a.

    Progression is slow

    b.

    Bone conduction heard longer than air conduction

    c.

    Results from cranial nerve VII

    d.

    Loss of high frequency

    e.

    Sounds may be garbled and difficult to localize

    f.

    Unable to hear in a crowded room

    D

    E

    F

     

     

     

    Question 45

    Which of the following is an expected change in the assessment of the thyroid during pregnancy?

    A bruit is auscultated.

    Inspection reveals a goiter.

    The gland is tender upon palpation.

    Palpation of the gland becomes difficult.

    A

     

     

    Question 46

    A 17-year-old girl presents to the clinic for a sports physical. Physical examination findings reveal bradycardia, multiple erosions of tooth enamel, and scars on her knuckles. She appears healthy otherwise. You should ask her if she:

    is cold intolerant.

    binges and vomits.

    has constipation frequently.

    has regular menstrual periods.

    Bb

     

     

     

    Question 47

    Mr. Walters, a 32-year-old patient, tells you that his ears are “stopped up.” An objective assessment of this complaint is achieved by using the:

    otoscope with pneumatic attachment.

    tympanometer.

    reflex hammer.

    tuning fork.

    B

     

     

    Question 48

    During an interview, you have the impression that a patient may be considering suicide. Which action is essential?

    Ask whether the patient has considered self-harm.

    Avoid directly confronting the patient regarding your impression.

    Record the impression in the patient’s chart and refer the patient for hospitalization.

    Ask whether the patient would like to visit a psychiatrist.

    A

     

     

     

    Question 49

    When are open-ended questions generally most useful?

    During the initial part of the interview

    While designing the genogram

    During the review of systems

    After several close-ended questions have been asked

    A

     

     

     

     

    Question 50

    When assessing abdominal pain in a college-age woman, one must include:

    history of interstate travel.

    food likes and dislikes.

    the first day of the last menstrual period.

    age at completion of toilet training.

    C

     

     

    Question 51

    Regardless of the origin, discharge is described by noting:

    color and consistency.

    associated symptoms in alphabetic order.

    a grading scale of 0 to 4.

    demographic data and risk factors.

    A

     

     

     

    Question 52

    Spasmodic muscular contractions of the head, face, or neck are called:

    D. webbing.

    B. tics.

    A. torticollis.

    C. dimpling.

    B

     

     

     

    Question 53

    Before performing an abdominal examination, the examiner should:

    don double gloves.

    have the patient empty his or her bladder.

    ascertain the patient’s HIV status.

    completely disrobe the patient.

    B

     

     

     

     

    Question 54

    The recommended minimum daily protein requirement for the normal adult is ______

    14-20%

     

     

    Question 55

    Subjective and symptomatic data are:

    not mentioned in the legal chart.

    recorded with the examination technique.

    placed in the history section.

    documented with the examination findings.

    C

     

     

    Question 56

    Your patient returns for a blood pressure check 2 weeks after a visit during which you performed a complete history and physical. This visit would be documented by creating a(n):

    accident report.

    progress note.

    triage note.

    problem-oriented medical record.

    B

     

     

     

    Question 57

    Which of the following formats would be used for visits that address problems not yet identified in the problem-oriented medical record (POMR)?

    Progress note

    Brief SOAP note

    Referral note

    Comprehensive health history

    B

     

     

     

    Question 58

    You are collecting a history from an 11-year-old girl. Her mother is sitting next to her in the examination room. When collecting history from older children or adolescents, they should be:

    ignored while you address all questions to the parent.

    mailed a questionnaire in advance to avoid the need for her to talk.

    given the opportunity to be interviewed without the parent at some point during the interview.

    allowed to direct the flow of the interview.

    C

     

     

     

     

     

    Question 59

    A 51-year-old woman calls with complaints of weight loss and constipation. She reports enlarged hemorrhoids and rectal bleeding. You advise her to:

    use topical over-the-counter hemorrhoid treatment for 1 week.

    eat six small meals a day.

    exercise and eat more fiber.

    come to the laboratory for a stool guaiac test.

    D

     

     

    Question 60

    Mr. Marks is a 66-year-old patient who presents for a physical examination to the clinic. Which question has the most potential for exploring a patient’s cultural beliefs related to a health problem?

    “What are your age, race, and educational level?”

    “What types of symptoms have you been having?”

    “Why do you think you are having these symptoms?”

    “How often do you have medical examinations?”

    C

     

     

     

     

    Question 61

    Which cranial nerves innervate the face?

    A. II and V

    B. III and VI

    D. VIII and IX

    C. V and VII

    D

     

     

    Question 62

    Peritonitis produces bowel sounds that are:

    absent.

    high pitched.

    hypoactive.

    hyperactive.

    C

     

     

     

     

     

    Question 63

    Mrs. Raymonds is a 24-year-old patient who has presented for a routine concern over her current weight. In your patient teaching with her, you explain the importance of macronutrients. Which of the following is a macronutrient?

    Fat

    Calcium

    Iron

    Thiamin

    A

     

     

    Question 64

    Nasal symptoms that imply an allergic response include:

    small, atrophied nasal membranes.

    firm consistency of turbinates.

    purulent nasal drainage.

    bluish gray turbinates.

    D

     

     

    Question 65

    Mr. Johnson presents with a freely movable cystic mass in the midline of the high neck region at the base of the tongue. This is most likely a:

    D. thyroglossal duct cyst.

    A. parotid gland tumor.

    B. branchial cleft cyst.

    C. Stensen duct stone.

    A

     

     

    Question 66

    Pigmented, raised, warty lesions over the face and trunk should be assessed by an experienced practitioner who can distinguish:

    C. sebaceous hyperplasia from eczema.

    D. seborrheic keratoses from actinic keratoses.

    B. furuncles from folliculitis.

    A. cutaneous tags from lentigines.

    B

     

    Question 67

    When you are questioning a patient regarding alcohol intake, she tells you that she is only a social drinker. Which initial response is appropriate?

    “I’m glad that you are a responsible drinker.”

    “If you only drink socially, you won t need to worry about always having a designated driver.”

    “Do the other people in your household consume alcohol?”

    “What amount and what kind of alcohol do you drink in a week?”

    D

     

    Question 68

    Mrs. Kinder is a 39-year-old patient who presents to the office with complaints of an earache. In explaining to the patient about the function of her ears, which ear structure would you tell her is responsible for equalizing atmospheric pressure when swallowing, sneezing, or yawning?

    Eustachian tube

    Triangular fossa

    Inner ear

    Pars flaccida

    A

     

     

    Question 69

    What finding is unique to the documentation of a physical examination of an infant?

    Thyroid position

    Prostate size

    Liver span

    Fontanel sizes

    D

     

     

    Question 70

    A blood pressure cuff bladder should be long enough to:

    cover 75% to 80% of the arm circumference.

    completely encircle the arm.

    cover 20% to 25% of the arm circumference.

    cover 45% to 50% of the arm circumference.

    D

     

     

    Question 71

    Mr. and Mrs. Johnson have presented to the office with their infant son with complaints of ear drainage. When examining an infant’s middle ear, the nurse should use one hand to stabilize the otoscope against the head while using the other hand to:

    hold the speculum in the canal.

    pull the auricle down and back.

    distract the infant.

    stabilize the chest.

    B

     

     

    Question 72

    To perform the Rinne test, place the tuning fork on the:

    preauricular area.

    mastoid bone.

    top of the head.

    forehead.

    B

     

    Question 73

    Mrs. Britton brings her 16-year-old son in with a complaint that he is not developing correctly into adolescence. Which structures disproportionately enlarge in the male during adolescence?

    C. Mandible and maxilla bones

    B. Hyoid and cricoid cartilages

    D. Nose and thyroid cartilages

    A. Coronal sutures

    C

     

     

     

     

    Question 74

    Mr. Donalds is a 45-year-old roofer. Your inspection to determine color variations of the skin is best conducted:

    B. under fluorescent lighting.

    D. using a Wood’s light.

    C. with illumination provided by daylight.

    A. using an episcope.

    C

     

    Question 75

    Mr. Kevin Marks is a new health care provider. What is the best method to develop cultural competence?

    Realize that all members of a cultural group behave in the same way.

    Ignore one’s own cultural beliefs.

    Realize that cultural values are difficult to change and must be respected.

    Attempt to convince the patient to accept institutional mores.

    C

     

     

     

    Question 76

    Ms. Davis is a 27-year-old patient with a BMI of 33. Based on her BMI, your diagnosis would be:

    extremely obese.

    overweight.

    obese.

    normal body weight.

    C

     

    Question 77

    The most common form of birth trauma of the scalp is:

    cranial bossing.

    torticollis.

    caput succedaneum.

    cephalhematoma.

    C

     

     

    Question 78

    Mr. L. presents to the clinic with severe groin pain and a history of kidney stones. Mr. L.’s son tells you that, for religious reasons, his father wishes to keep any stone that is passed into the urine filter that he has been using. What is your most appropriate response?

    “The stone must be sent to the lab for examination and therefore cannot be kept.”

    “We don’t know yet if your father has another kidney stone, so we must analyze this one.”

    “With your father’s permission, we will examine the stone and request that it be returned to him.”

    “We cannot let him keep his stone because it violates our infection control policy.”

    C

     

     

    Question 79

    Your patient is complaining of acute, intense sharp epigastric pain that radiates to the back and left scapula with nausea and vomiting. Based on this history, your prioritized physical examination should be to:

    inspect for ecchymosis of the flank.

    auscultate for abdominal bruits.

    assess for rebound tenderness.

    percuss for ascites.

    A

     

    Question 80

    Mr. Black is a 44-year-old patient who presents to the clinic with complaints of neck pain that he thinks is from his job involving computer data entry. As the examiner, you are checking the range of motion in his neck and note the greatest degree of cervical mobility is at:

    B. C2 to C3.

    D. C4 to C5.

    A. C1 to C2.

    C. C3 to C4.

    B

     

     

    stion 81

    Which of the following organs is part of the alimentary tract?

    Gallbladder

    Pancreas

    Stomach

    Liver

    C

     

    uestion 82

    You are completing a general physical examination on Mr. Rock, a 39-year-old man with complaints of constipation. When examining a patient with tense abdominal musculature, a helpful technique is to have the patient:

    sit upright.

    hold his or her breath.

    flex his or her knees.

    raise his or her head off the pillow.

    C

     

    estion 83

    Mrs. Berger is a 39-year-old woman who presents with a complaint of epigastric abdominal pain. You have completed the inspection of the abdomen. What is your next step in the assessment process?

    Deep palpation

    Auscultation

    Percussion

    Light palpation

    B

    Question 84

    Placing the base of a vibrating tuning fork on the midline vertex of the patient’s head is a test for:

    lateralization of sound.

    air conduction of sound.

    bone versus air conduction.

    mallear auditory ability.

    A

     

     

    uestion 85

    Before performing an abdominal examination, the examiner should:

    have the patient empty his or her bladder.

    completely disrobe the patient.

    don double gloves.

    ascertain the patient’s HIV status.

    C

     

    George Michaels, a 22-year-old patient, tells the nurse that he is here today to “check his allergies.” He has been having “green nasal discharge” for the last 72 hours. How would the nurse document his reason for seeking care?

    G. M. is a 22-year-old male here for “allergies.”

    G. M. came into the clinic complaining of green discharge for the past 72 hours.

    G. M., a 22-year-old male, states he has allergies and wants them checked.

    G.M. is a 22-year-old male here for having “green nasal discharge” for the past 72 hours.

    D

     

    Question 87

    Your patient presents with symptoms that lead you to suspect acute appendicitis. Which assessment finding is least likely to be associated with this condition early in its course?

    Rebound tenderness

    Consistent right lower quadrant (RLQ pain)

    Positive McBurney sign

    Positive psoas sign

    A

     

    Question 88

    Bulging of an amber tympanic membrane without mobility is most often associated with:

    repeated and prolonged crying cycles.

    middle ear effusion.

    healed tympanic membrane perforation.

    impacted cerumen in the canal.

    B

     

     

    Question 89

    Recommended carbohydrate content of total dietary intake (% total calories) is ____%.

    50

     

    uestion 90

    Unusual white areas on the skin may be due to:

    B. polycythemia.

    A. adrenal disease.

    D. Down syndrome.

    C. vitiligo.

    D

     

    uestion 91

    Auscultation should be carried out last, except when examining the:

    lungs.

    abdomen.

    heart.

    neck area.

    Bb

     

    Question 92

    Penicillin is considered a

    “cold” medicine.

    “hot” medicine.

    “lukewarm” oil.

    “cold” herb.

    Bbb

     

     

    uestion 93

    In examining the neck of a 34-year-old female patient, you note that the uppermost ridge of the tracheal cartilage is at the:

    sternocleidomastoid.

    thyroid.

    hyoid.

    cricoid.

    D

     

     

     

    Question 94

    When assessing abdominal pain in a college-age woman, one must include:

    age at completion of toilet training.

    the first day of the last menstrual period.

    history of interstate travel.

    food likes and dislikes.

    B

     

     

    Question 95

    A detailed description of the symptoms related to the chief complaint is presented in the:

    general patient information section.

    differential diagnosis.

    assessment.

    history of present illness.

    D

     

    Question 96

    Periods of silence during the interview can serve important purposes, such as:

    providing time for reflection.

    increasing the length of the visit.

    promoting calmness.

    allowing the clinician to catch up on documentation.

    D

     

     

    Question 97

    A guideline for history taking is for caregivers to:

    ask direct questions before open-ended questions so that data move from simple to complex.

    ask for a complete history at once so that data are not forgotten between meetings.

    make notes sparingly so that patients can be observed during the history taking.

    write detailed information as stated by patients so that their priorities are reflected.

    C

     

    Question 98

    Tuning forks with a frequency of 500 to 1000 Hz are most commonly used to measure:

    hearing range of normal speech.

    buzzing or tingling sensations.

    noise above the threshold level.

    buzzing from bone conduction.

    A

     

     

    Question 99

    Which is the best way to position a patient’s neck for palpation of the thyroid?

    B. Flexed directly forward

    C. Flexed toward the side being examined

    A. Flexed away from the side being examined

    D. Hyperextended directly backward

    B

     

     

    Question 100

    Which question would be considered a leading question?

    “You don’t get headaches often, do you?”

    “At what time of the day are your headaches the most severe?”

    “On a scale of 1 to 10, how would you rate the severity of your headaches?”

    “What do you think is causing your headaches?”

    A

  • NURS 6512 Assignment 1: Assessment Tools and Diagnostic Tests in Adults and Children Case Study

    Assignment 1: Case Study Assignment: Assessment Tools and Diagnostic Tests in Adults and Children

    When seeking to identify a patient’s health condition, advanced practice nurses can use a diverse selection of diagnostic tests and assessment tools; however, different factors affect the validity and reliability of the results produced by these tests or tools. Nurses must be aware of these factors in order to select the most appropriate test or tool and to accurately interpret the results.

    Not only do these diagnostic tests affect adults, body measurements can provide a general picture of whether a child is receiving adequate nutrition or is at risk for health issues. These data, however, are just one aspect to be considered. Lifestyle, family history, and culture—among other factors—are also relevant. That said, gathering and communicating this information can be a delicate process.

    Photo Credit: Getty Images/Hero Images

    For this Assignment, you will consider the validity and reliability of different assessment tools and diagnostic tests. You will explore issues such as sensitivity, specificity, and positive and negative predictive values. You will also consider examples of children with various weight issues. You will explore how you could effectively gather information and encourage parents and caregivers to be proactive about their children’s health and weight.

    To Prepare

    Review this week’s Learning Resources and consider factors that impact the validity and reliability of various assessment tools and diagnostic tests. You also will review examples of pediatric patients and their families as it relates to BMI.

    By Day 1 of this week, you will be assigned to one of the following Assignment options by your Instructor: Adult Assessment Tools or Diagnostic Tests (option 1), or Child Health Case (Option 2). 
    Note:
     Please see the “Course Announcements” section of the classroom for your assignments from your Instructor.

    Search the Walden Library and credible sources for resources explaining the tool or test you were assigned. What is its purpose, how is it conducted, and what information does it gather?

    Also, as you search the Walden library and credible sources, consider what the literature discusses regarding the validity, reliability, sensitivity, specificity, predictive values, ethical dilemmas, and controversies related to the test or tool.

    If you are assigned Assignment Option 2 (Child), consider what health issues and risks may be relevant to the child in the health example.

    Based on the risks you identified, consider what further information you would need to gain a full understanding of the child’s health. Think about how you could gather this information in a sensitive fashion.

    Consider how you could encourage parents or caregivers to be proactive toward the child’s health.

    The Assignment

    Assignment
     (3–4 pages, not including title and reference pages)
    :

    Assignment Option 1: Adult Assessment Tools or Diagnostic Tests:

    Include the following:

    A description of how the assessment tool or diagnostic test you were assigned is used in healthcare.

    What is its purpose?

    How is it conducted?

    What information does it gather?

    Based on your research, evaluate the test or the tool’s validity and reliability, and explain any issues with sensitivity, reliability, and predictive values. Include references in appropriate APA formatting.

    Assignment Option 2: Child Health Case:

    Include the following:

    An explanation of the health issues and risks that are relevant to the child you were assigned.

    Describe additional information you would need in order to further assess his or her weight-related health.

    Identify and describe any risks and consider what further information you would need to gain a full understanding of the child’s health. Think about how you could gather this information in a sensitive fashion.

    Taking into account the parents’ and caregivers’ potential sensitivities, list at least three specific questions you would ask about the child to gather more information.

    Provide at least two strategies you could employ to encourage the parents or caregivers to be proactive about their child’s health and weight.

    By Day 6 of Week 3

    Submit
     your Assignment.

    Submission and Grading Information

    To submit your completed Assignment for review and grading, do the following:

    Please save your Assignment using the naming convention “WK3Assgn1+last name+first initial.(extension)” as the name.

    Click the 
    Week 3 Assignment 1 Rubric 
    to review the Grading Criteria for the Assignment.

    Click the 
    Week 3 Assignment 1 
    link. You will also be able to “View Rubric” for grading criteria from this area.

    Next, from the Attach File area, click on the 
    Browse My Computer
     button. Find the document you saved as “WK3Assgn1+last name+first initial.(extension)” and click 
    Open
    .

    If applicable: From the Plagiarism Tools area, click the checkbox for 
    I agree to submit my paper(s) to the Global Reference Database
    .

    Click on the 
    Submit
     button to complete your submission.

     

    NURS_6512_Week_3_Assignment_1_Rubric_Option_1

    Grid View

    List View

    Excellent

    Good

    Fair

    Poor

    In 3–4 pages, address the following:

    A description of how the assessment tool or diagnostic test you were assigned is used in healthcare.

    o What is its purpose?

    o How is it conducted?

    o What information does it gather?

    30 
    (30%)
     – 35 
    (35%)

    The response clearly, accurately, and with specific detail describes how the assessment tool or diagnostic test assigned is used in healthcare, including its purpose, how it is conducted, and what information it gathers.

    24 
    (24%)
     – 29 
    (29%)

    The response accurately describes how the assessment tool or diagnostic test assigned is used in healthcare, including its purpose, how it is conducted, and what information it gathers.

    18 
    (18%)
     – 23 
    (23%)

    The response vaguely and/or with some inaccuracy describes how the assessment tool or diagnostic test assigned is used in healthcare, including its purpose, how it is conducted, and what information it gathers.

    0 
    (0%)
     – 17 
    (17%)

    The response is inaccurate or missing descriptions of how the assessment tool or diagnostic test assigned is used in healthcare, including its purpose, how it is conducted, and what information it gathers.

    Based on your research, evaluate the test or the tool’s validity and reliability, and explain any issues with sensitivity, reliability, and predictive values.

    45 
    (45%)
     – 50 
    (50%)

    The response accurately and thoroughly evaluates the test or tool’s validity and reliability, and explains any issues with clear sensitivity, reliability, and predictive values. Student’s research is clear, accurate, and appropriate for the evaluation.

    39 
    (39%)
     – 44 
    (44%)

    The response accurately evaluates the test or tool’s validity and reliability, and explains any issues with sensitivity, reliability, and predictive values. Student’s research is somewhat clear, accurate,and appropriate for the evaluation.

    33 
    (33%)
     – 38 
    (38%)

    The response vaguely and/or with some inaccuracy evaluates the test or tool’s validity and reliability, and explains any issues with some sensitivity, reliability, and predictive values. Student’s research is vague or inaccurate for the evaluation.

    0 
    (0%)
     – 32 
    (32%)

    “The response is inaccurate and/or missing evaluations of the test or tool’s validity and reliability, with explanations of any issues missing or lacking sensitivity, reliability, and predictive values. Student’s research is missing, inaccurate, or lacking for the evaluation.

    Written Expression and Formatting – Paragraph Development and Organization:

    Paragraphs make clear points that support well-developed ideas, flow logically, and demonstrate continuity of ideas. Sentences are carefully focused–neither long and rambling nor short and lacking substance. A clear and comprehensive purpose statement and introduction are provided that delineate all required criteria.

    5 
    (5%)
     – 5 
    (5%)

    Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity. A clear and comprehensive purpose statement, introduction, and conclusion are provided that delineate all required criteria.

    4 
    (4%)
     – 4 
    (4%)

    Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity 80% of the time. Purpose, introduction, and conclusion of the assignment are stated, yet are brief and not descriptive.

    3 
    (3%)
     – 3 
    (3%)

    Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity 60%–79% of the time. Purpose, introduction, and conclusion of the assignment are vague or off topic.

    0 
    (0%)
     – 2 
    (2%)

    Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity < 60% of the time. No purpose statement, introduction, or conclusion were provided. Written Expression and Formatting – English writing standards: Correct grammar, mechanics, and proper punctuation 5  (5%)  – 5  (5%) Uses correct grammar, spelling, and punctuation with no errors. 4  (4%)  – 4  (4%) Contains a few (1 or 2) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors. 3  (3%)  – 3  (3%) Contains several (3 or 4) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors. 0  (0%)  – 2  (2%) Contains many (≥ 5) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors that interfere with the reader’s understanding. Written Expression and Formatting – The paper follows correct APA format for title page, headings, font, spacing, margins, indentations, page numbers, running heads, parenthetical/in-text citations, and reference list. 5  (5%)  – 5  (5%) Uses correct APA format with no errors. 4  (4%)  – 4  (4%) Contains a few (1 or 2) APA format errors. 3  (3%)  – 3  (3%) Contains several (3 or 4) APA format errors. 0  (0%)  – 2  (2%) Contains many (≥ 5) APA format errors. Total Points: 100 NURS_6512_Week_3_Assignment_1_Rubric_Option_2 Grid View List View Excellent Good Fair Poor In 3–4 pages, address the following: An explanation of the health issues and risks that are relevant to the child you were assigned. 20  (20%)  – 25  (25%) The response clearly, accurately, and in detail explains the relevant health issues and risks for the assigned child. 19  (19%)  – 24  (24%) The response accurately explains the relevant health issues and risks for the assigned child. 18  (18%)  – 23  (23%) The response vaguely and with some inaccuracy explains the relevant health issues and risks for the assigned child. 0  (0%)  – 17  (17%) The response is inaccurate and/or missing explanations of the relevant health issues and risks for the assigned child. Describe additional information you would need in order to further assess his or her weight-related health. 20  (20%)  – 25  (25%) The response clearly and accurately describes detailed additional information needed to further assess the child’s weight-related health. 19  (19%)  – 24  (24%) The response accurately describes additional information needed to further assess the child’s weight-related health. 18  (18%)  – 23  (23%) The response vaguely and with some inaccuracy describes additional information needed to further assess the child’s weight-related health. 0  (0%)  – 17  (17%) The response is inaccurate and/or missing a description of additional information needed to further assess the child’s weight-related health. Identify and describe any risks, and consider what further information you would need to gain a full understanding of the child’s health. Think about how you could gather this information in a sensitive fashion. 18  (18%)  – 20  (20%) The response clearly and accurately identifies and describes in detail any risks to the child’s health. The response clearly and accurately identifies and describes in detail further information needed to gain a full understanding of the child’s health, with a detailed explanation of how to gather that information in a way that is sensitive to the child. 16  (16%)  – 17  (17%) The response accurately identifies and describes any risks to the child’s health. The response accurately identifies and describes further information needed to gain a full understanding of the child’s health, with a clear explanation of how to gather that information in a way that is sensitive to the child. 14  (14%)  – 14  (14%) The response vaguely and with some inaccuracy identifies and describes any risks to the child’s health. The response vaguely identifies and describes further information needed to gain a full understanding of the child’s health, with a vague explanation of how to gather that information in a way that is sensitive to the child. 0  (0%)  – 13  (13%) The response identifies inaccurately and/or is missing descriptions of any risks to the child’s health. The response identifies inaccurately and/or is missing descriptions of further information needed to gain a full understanding of the child’s health, with an inadequate or missing explanation of how to gather that information in a way that is sensitive to the child. Taking into account the parents’ and caregivers’ potential sensitivities, list at least three specific questions you would ask about the child to gather more information. 10  (10%)  – 10  (10%) The response clearly and accurately lists three or more specific questions that would gather more information about the child. Specific questions are carefully worded to clearly demonstrate sensitivity to the parent(s) or caregiver(s) of the child. 9  (9%)  – 9  (9%) The response lists three specific questions that would gather more information about the child. Specific questions are worded to demonstrate sensitivity to the parent(s) or caregiver(s) of the child. 8  (8%)  – 8  (8%) The response lists three questions with wording that is vague and lacking specificity for gathering more information about the child. Some wording of the questions lacks sensitivity to the parent(s) or caregiver(s) of the child. 0  (0%)  – 7  (7%) The response lists two or fewer confusing or inadequate questions, or is missing questions, for gathering more information about the child. Wording of questions provided lacks sensitivity to the parent(s) or caregiver(s) of the child. Provide at least two strategies you could employ to encourage the parents or caregivers to be proactive about their child’s health and weight. 5  (5%)  – 5  (5%) The response clearly describes two or more detailed strategies to encourage the parent(s) or caregiver(s) to be proactive about the child’s health and weight. 4  (4%)  – 4  (4%) The response describes at least two strategies to encourage the parent(s) or caregiver(s) to be proactive about the child’s health and weight. 3  (3%)  – 3  (3%) The response vaguely describes two strategies to encourage the parent(s) or caregiver(s) to be proactive about the child’s health and weight. 0  (0%)  – 2  (2%) The response inadequately describes one strategy or is missing strategies to encourage the parent(s) or caregiver(s) to be proactive about the child’s health and weight. Written Expression and Formatting – Paragraph Development and Organization: Paragraphs make clear points that support well-developed ideas, flow logically, and demonstrate continuity of ideas. Sentences are carefully focused–neither long and rambling nor short and lacking substance. A clear and comprehensive purpose statement and introduction are provided that delineate all required criteria. 5  (5%)  – 5  (5%) Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity. A clear and comprehensive purpose statement, introduction, and conclusion are provided that delineate all required criteria. 4  (4%)  – 4  (4%) Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity 80% of the time. Purpose, introduction, and conclusion of the assignment are stated, yet are brief and not descriptive. 3  (3%)  – 3  (3%) Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity 60%–79% of the time. Purpose, introduction, and conclusion of the assignment are vague or off topic. 0  (0%)  – 2  (2%) Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity < 60% of the time. No purpose statement, introduction, or conclusion were provided. Written Expression and Formatting – English writing standards: Correct grammar, mechanics, and proper punctuation 5  (5%)  – 5  (5%) Uses correct grammar, spelling, and punctuation with no errors. 4  (4%)  – 4  (4%) Contains a few (1 or 2) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors. 3  (3%)  – 3  (3%) Contains several (3 or 4) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors. 0  (0%)  – 2  (2%) Contains many (≥ 5) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors that interfere with the reader’s understanding. Written Expression and Formatting – The paper follows correct APA format for title page, headings, font, spacing, margins, indentations, page numbers, running heads, parenthetical/in-text citations, and reference list. 5  (5%)  – 5  (5%) Uses correct APA format with no errors. 4  (4%)  – 4  (4%) Contains a few (1 or 2) APA format errors. 3  (3%)  – 3  (3%) Contains several (3 or 4) APA format errors. 0  (0%)  – 2  (2%) Contains many (≥ 5) APA format errors. Total Points: 100

  • NURS 6501 Advanced Pathophysiology Module 2 week 3 Knowledge Check quizlet

    NURS 6501 Advanced Pathophysiology Module 2 week 3 Knowledge Check quizlet

    Review Test Submission: Module 2 Knowledge Check

    Content

    User

    xxxxx

    Course

    NURS-6501S-19/NURS-6501N-19-Advanced Pathophysiology2020 Fall Quarter 08/31-11/22-PT27

    Test

    Module 2 Knowledge Check

    Started

    9/20/20 3:12 AM

    Submitted

    9/20/20 4:38 AM

    Due Date

    9/21/20 1:59 AM

    Status

    Needs Grading

    Attempt Score

    Grade not available.

    Time Elapsed

    1 hour, 25 minutes

    Results Displayed

    Correct Answers

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    Question 1

    Needs Grading

    CC: “I have been having terrible chest and arm pain for the past 2 hours and I think I am having a heart attack.”

    HPI: Mr. Hammond is a 57-year-old African American male who presents to the Emergency Department with a chief complaint of chest pain that radiates down his left arm. He states that he started having pain several hours ago and says the pain “it feels like an elephant is sitting on my chest”. He rates the pain as 8/10. NURS 6501 Advanced Pathophysiology Module 2 week 3 Knowledge Check quizlet Nothing has made the pain better or worse. He denies any previous episode of chest pain. Denies nausea, dyspnea, or lightheadedness. He was given 0.4 mg nitroglycerine tablet sublingual x 1 which decreased, but not stopped the pain.

    Lipid panel reveals Total Cholesterol 324 mg/dl, high density lipoprotein (HDL) 31 mg/dl, Low Density Lipoprotein (LDL) 122 mg/dl, Triglycerides 402 mg/dl, Very Low-Density Lipoprotein (VLDL) 54 mg/dl

    His diagnosis is an acute inferior wall myocardial infarction.

    1 of 2 Questions:

    Why is HDL considered the “good” cholesterol?

    Correct Answer:

    HDL is considered the good cholesterol because it collects excess cholesterol in the body cells and transports it to the liver where it is excreted in the body cells and transports it to the liver where it is excreted in the body. HDL carries 20-25% of total plasma cholesterol. NURS 6501 Advanced Pathophysiology Module 2 week 3 Knowledge Check quizlet

    Question 2

    Needs Grading

    CC: “I have been having terrible chest and arm pain for the past 2 hours and I think I am having a heart attack.”

    HPI: Mr. Hammond is a 57-year-old African American male who presents to the Emergency Department with a chief complaint of chest pain that radiates down his left arm. He states that he started having pain several hours ago and says the pain “it feels like an elephant is sitting on my chest”. He rates the pain as 8/10. Nothing has made the pain better or worse. He denies any previous episode of chest pain. Denies nausea, dyspnea, or lightheadedness. He was given 0.4 mg nitroglycerine tablet sublingual x 1 which decreased, but not stopped the pain.

    Lipid panel reveals Total Cholesterol 324 mg/dl, high density lipoprotein (HDL) 31 mg/dl, Low Density Lipoprotein (LDL) 122 mg/dl, Triglycerides 402 mg/dl, Very Low-Density Lipoprotein (VLDL) 54 mg/dl NURS 6501 Advanced Pathophysiology Module 2 week 3 Knowledge Check quizlet

    His diagnosis is an acute inferior wall myocardial infarction.

    2 of 2 Questions:

    Explain the role inflammation has in the development of atherosclerosis.

    Correct Answer:

    Inflammation in the heart muscle caused by chronic inflammatory processes leads to mitochondrial damage that results in an increased free radical production that further activates the chronic inflammatory vicious cycle.

    Question 3

    Needs Grading

    A 45-year-old woman with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) presents to the Emergency Room (ER) with complaints of sharp retrosternal chest pain that worsens with deep breathing or lying down. She reports a 3-day history of low-grade fever, listlessness and says she feels like she had the flu. Physical exam reveals tachycardia and a pleural friction rub. She was diagnosed with acute pericarditis. NURS 6501 Advanced Pathophysiology Module 2 week 3 Knowledge Check quizlet

     

    Question:

     

    What does the Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) recognize as the result of the pleural friction rub?

    Correct Answer:

    The inflammation of the pericardium, due to either the underlying autoimmune disease or a post viral syndrome, causes roughening of the pericardium. The roughening of the pericardium causes the classic “rub” which can best be heard at the apex of the heart and left sternal border.

    Question 4

    Needs Grading

    A 15-year-old adolescent male comes to the clinic with his parents with a chief complaint of fever, nausea, vomiting, poorly localized abdominal pain, arthralgias, and “swollen lymph nodes”. States he has felt “lousy” for a couple weeks. The fevers have been as high as 102 F. His parents thought he had the flu and took him to an Urgent Care Center. He was given Tamiflu® and sent home. He says the Tamiflu didn’t seem to work. States had a slight sore throat a couple weeks ago and attributed it to the flu. Physical exam revealed thin young man who appears to be uncomfortable but not acutely ill. Posterior pharynx reddened and tonsils 3+ without exudate. + anterior and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. Tachycardic and a new onset 2/6 high-pitched, crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur auscultated at the left sternal border. Rapid strep +. The patient was diagnosed with acute rheumatic heart disease (RHD).

     

    Question:

     

    Explain how a positive strep test has caused the patient’s symptoms.

    Correct Answer:

    Rheumatic Heart Disease (RHD) only develops after a pharyngeal infection with Group A beta hemolytic streptococcus. It is an abnormal response to humoral and cell-mediated response to M proteins on the microorganisms. The intense inflammation caused by these reactions cause proliferative and exudative lesions in connective tissue. This inflammation causes scarring of the valve tissue. The inflammation usually affects the endocardium which contains the valves. Endocardial inflammation causes swelling of leaflets in the valves.

    Question 5

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    Needs Grading

    The APRN sees a 74-year-old obese female patient who is 2 days post-op after undergoing left total hip replacement. The patient has had severe post op nausea and vomiting and has been unable to go to physical therapy. Her mucus membranes are dry. The patient says she feels like the skin on her left leg is too tight. Exam reveals a swollen, tense, and red colored calf. The patient has a duplex ultrasound which reveals the presence of a deep venous thrombosis (DVT). NURS 6501 Advanced Pathophysiology Module 2 week 3 Knowledge Check quizlet

    Question:

    Describe the factors that could have contributed to the development of a DVT in this patient explain how each of the factors could cause DVT.

    Correct Answer:

    Virchow’s Triad caused damage to the walls of the vessels. When there is injury to the intimal layer of the vessel, antiplatelet substances such as nitric oxide and prostacyclin, along with the expression of collagen on the vessel wall, causes adherence of the platelets to the vessel wall. The platelets become activated then aggregate forming clots. Venous stasis as a result of obesity, patient’s advanced age and inability to go to physical therapy. NURS 6501 Advanced Pathophysiology Module 2 week 3 Knowledge Check quizlet

    Question 6

    Needs Grading

    A 45-year-old woman is 10 days status post partial small bowel resection for Crohn Disease and has been recuperating at home. She suddenly develops severe shortness of breath, becomes weak, and her blood pressure drops to 80/40 mmHg (previous readings ~130/80s mmHg). The pulse oximetry is 89% on room air. The APRN suspects the patient experienced a massive pulmonary embolus.

     

    Question:

     

    Explain why a large pulmonary embolus interferes with oxygenation.

    Correct Answer:

    The embolus lodges somewhere in the pulmonary circulation and causes a ventilation/perfusion mismatch (V/Q). NURS 6501 Advanced Pathophysiology Module 2 week 3 Knowledge Check quizlet.  Ventilation Perfusion mismatch or “V/Q defects” are defects in total lung ventilation perfusion ratio. It is a condition in which one or more areas of the lung receive oxygen but no blood flow, or they receive blood flow but no oxygen due to obstruction somewhere in the pulmonary circulation. This causes a decreased area for oxygen exchange.

    Question 7

    Needs Grading

    A 45-year-old woman is 10 days status post partial small bowel resection for Crohn Disease and has been recuperating at home. She suddenly develops severe shortness of breath, becomes weak, and her blood pressure drops to 80/40 mmHg (previous readings ~130/80s mmHg). The pulse oximetry is 89% on room air. NURS 6501 Advanced Pathophysiology Module 2 week 3 Knowledge Check quizlet While waiting for the Emergency Medical Service (EMS) to arrive, the APRN places EKG leads and the EKG demonstrates right ventricular strain.

     

    Question:

     

    Explain why a large pulmonary embolism causes right ventricular strain.

    Correct Answer:

    The V/Q mismatch causes release of neurohumeral substances and inflammatory mediators that cause vasoconstriction of the pulmonary vasculature further impeding oxygenation. Hemodynamically, this vasoconstriction results in pulmonary hypertension, making it difficult for the right ventricle to pump blood. The V/Q mismatch also causes decreased production of surfactant causing atelectasis that further decreases surface area available for oxygen exchange.

    Question 8

    Needs Grading

    A 12-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Room (ER) by her mother with complaints of shortness of breath, wheezing, tachypnea, tachycardia, and a non-productive cough. The mother states they had just come from a fall festival where the entire family enjoyed a hayride. The symptoms began shortly after they left the festival but got better a couple hours after they returned home. The symptoms began again about 6 hours later and seem to be worse  NURS 6501 Advanced Pathophysiology Module 2 week 3 Knowledge Check quizlet. The mother states there is no history of allergies or frequent respiratory infections. The child is up to date on all vaccinations. The child was diagnosed with asthma. The nurse practitioner explained to the mother that her child was exhibiting symptoms of asthma, and probably had an early asthmatic response and a late asthmatic response.

     

    Question 1 of 2:

     

    Explain early asthmatic responses and the cells responsible for the responses.

    Correct Answer:

    When there is an initial airway exposure to an antigen, an innate and adaptive immune response is initiated. Cells that can initiate the inflammation of the bronchial mucosa and hyperresonance of the airways include dendritic cells, T helper 2 lymphocytes, B lymphocytes, mast cells, neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils. Early asthmatic response is a phase of bronchospasm that peaks at about 30 minutes and usually resolves after about 3 hours NURS 6501 Advanced Pathophysiology Module 2 week 3 Knowledge Check quizlet.

    Question 9

    Needs Grading

    A 12-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Room (ER) by her mother with complaints of shortness of breath, wheezing, tachypnea, tachycardia, and a non-productive cough. The mother states they had just come from a fall festival where the entire family enjoyed a hayride. The symptoms began shortly after they left the festival but got better a couple hours after they returned home. The symptoms began again about 6 hours later and seem to be worse. The mother states there is no history of allergies or frequent respiratory infections. The child is up to date on all vaccinations. The child was diagnosed with asthma. The nurse practitioner explained to the mother that her child was exhibiting symptoms of asthma, and probably had an early asthmatic response and a late asthmatic response.

    Question 2 of 2:

    Explain late asthmatic responses and the cells responsible for the responses.

    Correct Answer:

    Late asthmatic responses are mediated by earlier exposure in early phase that causes a latent release of inflammatory mediators. These mediators, leukotrienes and prostaglandin D, cause bronchospasm, edema, and mucus secretions that obstruct airflow. Airway obstruction creates resistance to airflow and causes air trapping. Continued air trapping increases intrapleural and alveolar gas pressure, decreases ventilation and perfusion leading to uneven and variable ventilation/perfusion in the lung

    Question 10

    Needs Grading

    A 64-year-old man with a 40 pack/year history of cigarette smoking has been diagnosed with emphysema.  He asks the APRN if this means he has COPD.

    Question 1 of 2:

    Explain the pathophysiology of emphysema and how it relates to COPD
    .

    Correct Answer:

    Emphysema is a disease of the airways that causes permanent enlargement of the gasexchange airways. It is accompanied by destruction of the alveolar walls do not appear to be fibrotic. Chronic exposure to irritants recruit neutrophils, macrophages, and lymphocytes to the lung resulting in progressive damage from inflammatory oxidative stress. Emphysema is characterized by destruction of alveoli leading to decreased surface area for gas exchange that causes significant ventilation/perfusion mismatch NURS 6501 Advanced Pathophysiology Module 2 week 3 Knowledge Check quizlet.

    Question 11

    Needs Grading

    A 64-year-old man with a 40 pack/year history of cigarette smoking has been diagnosed with emphysema.  He asks the APRN if this means he has COPD.

    Question 2 of 2:

    Explain the pathophysiology of chronic bronchitis and how it relates to COPD.

    Correct Answer:

    Chronic bronchitis is caused by inhalation of irritants that promote bronchial inflammation. This inflammation causes bronchial edema, increase in the size and number of mucus glands and goblet cells, smooth muscle hypertrophy with fibrosis and narrowing of the airway. Increased secretions of thick mucus happen, and the patient cannot cough it up due to impairment of ciliary function. As the disease, progresses, the smaller airways are involved as well as the large airways. These airways, due to hypertrophy, cause narrowing of the smooth muscle and obstruct airflow, especially during expiration. The obstruction can lead to VQ mismatches.

    Question 12

    Needs Grading

    Mr. Jones is a 78-year-old gentleman who presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of fever, chills and cough. He also reports some dyspnea. He has a history of right sided CVA, COPD, dyslipidemia, and HTN. Current medications include atorvastatin 40 mg po qhs, lisinopril, and fluticasone/salmeterol. He reports more use of his albuterol rescue inhaler.

     

    Vital signs Temp 101.8 F, pulse 108, respirations 21. PaO
    2
    on room air 86% and on O
    2
    4 L nasal canula 94%. CMP WNL, WBC 18.4. Physical exam reveals thin, anxious gentleman with mild hemiparesis on left side due to CVA. HEENT WNL except for diminished gag reflex and uneven elevation of the uvula, CV-HR 108 RRR without murmurs, rubs, or click, no bruits. Resp-coarse rhonchi throughout lung fields. CXR reveals consolidation in right lower lobe. He was diagnosed with community acquired pneumonia (CAP).

    Question:

     

    Patient was hypoxic as evidenced by the low PaO
    2
    . Explain the pathologic processes that caused this patient’s hypoxemia.

    Correct Answer:

    Arterial hypoxemia early in acute pneumococcal pneumonia is principally caused by persistence of pulmonary artery blood flow to be consolidated lung resulting in an intrapulmonary shunt, and by ventilation-perfusion mismatch later. Release of mediators cause widespread inflammation of the bronchial structures, especially the alveolarcapillary membrane NURS 6501 Advanced Pathophysiology Module 2 week 3 Knowledge Check quizlet. The alveoli collapse due to inactivation of surfactant and the alveoli fill with exudate, decreasing surface area for gas exchange.

    Question 13

    Needs Grading

    A 64-year-old woman with moderately severe COPD comes to the pulmonary clinic for her quarterly checkup. The APRN reviewing the chart notes that the patient has lost 5% of her body weight since her last visit. The APRN questions the patient and patient admits to not having much of an appetite and she also admits to missing some meals because it “takes too much work” to cook and consume dinner.

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    Question:

     

    The APRN recognizes that COPD has a deleterious effect on patients. NURS 6501 Advanced Pathophysiology Module 2 week 3 Knowledge Check quizlet. Explain why patients with COPD are at risk for malnutrition.

    Correct Answer:

    Many of the patients with severe COPD are lean, and frequently in a malnourished or undernourished state, which is characterized by loss of fat-free body mass causing muscle wasting. The muscle wasting in COPD not only leads to decreased skeletal muscle function associated with reduced exercise capacity but is also a major determinant of mortality in COPD. Patients with COPD require a low carbohydrate diet as increased CHO can lead to hypercapnia as the end products of CHO metabolism are CO2 and H2O. NURS 6501 Advanced Pathophysiology Module 2 week 3 Knowledge Check quizlet