NURS 6630 Week 3: Self Assessment Quiz with 100% correct answers

NURS 6630 Week 3: Self Assessment Quiz with 100% correct answers

Question 1

G-protein coupled receptors are targets for several psychiatric medications. Given what we know about these receptors, what is the ultimate result we will see when one of them is activated in a way that would potentiate an action?

A. Intracellular activation of second messengers

 

B. Protein phosphorylation

 

Correct!

C. Modification of gene expression

 

ORDER AN EXAM, QUIZ, OR ASSIGNMENT HELP HERE HERE

A and B are both steps in the activities seen leading up to modification of gene expression.

Question 2

Upon blocking a Serotonin reuptake pump, what happens in the synaptic cleft and on the post synaptic cell membrane?

A. The result will be an increase in available Serotonin in the synaptic cleft causing the post synaptic cell to increase the number of Serotonin receptors.

 

Correct!

B. The result will be an increase in the available Serotonin in the synaptic cleft causing the post synaptic neuron to reduce the number of Serotonin receptors.

 

C. The result will be an increase in Serotonin in the synaptic cleft resulting in an increase in reuptake pumps on the presynaptic neuron.

 

D. The result will be an increase in Serotonin in the synaptic cleft resulting in a decrease in reuptake pumps on the pre-synaptic neuron. NURS 6630 Week 3: Self Assessment Quiz with 100% correct answers

 

A, C, and D are misrepresentations of what occurs when you increase Serotonin in the synaptic cleft. There is no effect on the pre-synaptic neuron, and the increases in Serotonin result in a reduction of receptor concentration on the post-synaptic neuron.

Question 3

Motivation is a component of patient-focused interventions to enhance adherence. Based on the transtheoretical model, readiness to change can fluctuate across five stages. Which stage is represented by the patient who is aware that a problem exists and, while seriously thinking about overcoming it, has not yet committed to a plan of action?

Preparation

 

Action

 

Correct!

Contemplation

 

Maintenance

 

Question 4

Receptors trigger one of two effector pathways resulting in changes in neuronal activity. These changes will, ultimately, effect gene expression. Which effector pathway is characterized by ion flux through transmitter-activated channels resulting in an altered membrane potential and neuronal activity?

A. Slow effector pathways

 

B. Modulated effector pathways

 

Correct!

C. Rapid effector pathways

 

D. NMDA glutamate receptor pathways

 

Answer B is fictitious, D is a type of rapid effector pathway, and A represents G-protein coupled receptors.

Question 5

Of the components of patient-focused interventions to enhance adherence, which component includes the following strategies: adaptive thinking, use of cues, and support?

Motivation

 

Correct!

Skills

 

Logistics

 

Education

 

Skills include adaptive thinking, problem solving, use of cues, and support.

Question 6

Treatment adherence is affected by several different factors. Clinical factors include mood, anxiety, psychosis, and substance misuse. There are also patient factors such as knowledge, attitude, and beliefs; economic and racial/ethnic disparities, and clinical encounters. A patient who presents hopeless, with decreased energy, and poor concentration is affected by which factor?

Substance misuse

 

Knowledge deficits

 

Attitude ad belief system

 

Correct!

Mood

 

These are signs of an altered mood.

Question 7

Neurotransmitters are defined by four essential characteristics. These are:

A. Neurotransmitters are synthesized within presynaptic neurons. NURS 6630 Week 3: Self Assessment Quiz with 100% correct answers

 

B. Depolarization of a neuron results in the release of a neurotransmitter, which exerts a multitude of actions on the postsynaptic neuron.

 

C. Their action on postsynaptic neurons can be replicated by administering a drug that mimics the activity of the endogenous neurotransmitter.

 

D. Their action in the synaptic cleft is terminated by a specific action.

 

Correct!

E. A, C, and D only

 

Answer B should read a “discrete” (not multitude) action on the post synaptic neuron.

Question 8

Neurotransmission is unidirectional insofar as chemical and electrical conduction is concerned within the individual neuron. Of the following descriptions, which best characterizes the order of neurotransmitter/receptor interaction that results in an electrical signal impulse and the release of another neurotransmitter for interaction in the synaptic cleft (signal conduction through a neuron)?

Cell body, dendrites, Axon, Axon terminals

 

Dendrites, Axon, Cell body, Axon, Axon terminals

 

Correct!

Dendrites, Cell body, Axon, Axon terminals

 

Axon terminals, Axon, Cell body, Dendrites

 

All of the other options are mis-sequenced in signal conduction.

Question 9

The synaptic cleft is best characterized by which of the following statements?

A. The synaptic cleft is the space between a single neuron’s dendrites and axon terminals in which intracellular communication occurs through the release of neurotransmitters allowing for signal conduction throughout the central nervous system.

 

B. The synaptic cleft is the space between the cell body and axon terminals that allows for release of neurotransmitters from the presynaptic neuron for intercellular communication with an adjacent neuron (post synaptic neuron).

 

Correct!

C. The synaptic cleft is an area where dendrites and axon terminals are within close proximity, allowing for the release of a neurotransmitter from a presynaptic neuron that can interact with receptors on dendritic cells of a post synaptic neuron, which is the main basis for intercellular communication of neurons.

 

Answer A represents a neuron communicating with itself and Answer B states that the synapse is the space between the cell body (not dendrites) and axon terminals.

Question 10

The human brain is subcategorized into four major structures. These structures include the cerebral cortex, brainstem, subcortical structures, and the cerebellum. Of these major categories, which one houses the area of the brain that has been found in some neuropathological studies of patients with schizophrenia to be of smaller size?

Cerebral cortex

 

Brainstem

 

Correct!

Subcortical structures

 

Cerebellum

 

The area of the brain in question is part of the thalamus, which is located in the subcortical structures. The other options are incorrect, geographically speaking. NURS 6630 Week 3: Self Assessment Quiz with 100% correct answers

Question 11

1
Neurons are classified in several different ways. From the following statements, select which ones are true.

The two structural classifications are projection neurons and local inter-neurons.

Function classifications are made up of two subcategories: excitatory and inhibitory.

Histological classification includes bipolar, unipolar, and multipolar.

Classifications using a combination of structural, functional, and neurotransmitter type provide the most robust and useful description.

Classification by neurotransmitter type alone provides the most useful description.

I only

III only

I, II, and V only

 

I, II, III, IV, and V

Correct!

I, III, and IV

Statement II would need to include modulatory function to be correct, and Statement V does not include structural and functional classification systems.

Question 12

Which of the following consists of all the known major neurotransmitters that are relevant in psychiatry?

glutamate, GABA, dopamine, serotonin, norepinephrine, histamine, steroids, nitric oxide

 

Correct!

glutamate, GABA, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, acetylcholine, histamine, endogenous opioids, steroids, cannabinoids, nitric oxide

 

glutamate, GABA, dopamine, serotonin, acetylcholine, endogenous opioids, nitric oxide, cannabinoids, steroids

 

glutamate, GABA, dopamine, serotonin, norepinephrine, endogenous opioids, steroids, histamine, nitric oxide

 

all the other options are missing neurotransmitters considered important in psychiatry

Question 13

G-protein coupled receptors are examples of what type of effector pathway?

Correct!

A. Slow effector pathways

 

B. Rapid effector pathways

 

C. NMDA glutamate receptor pathways

 

D. Modulated effector pathways

 

Answer D is fictitious, B represents ion channel receptors, and C is a type of rapid effector pathway.

Question 14

Which neurotransmitter is considered the major excitatory neurotransmitter?

A. Glycine

 

B. GABA

 

Correct!

C. Glutamate

 

D. Serotonin

 

A and B are inhibitory, and D is involved in mood and sleep.

Question 15

Glia cells play a supportive role to the neuron. A few of the functions of the glial cells include providing nutrition, maintaining homeostasis, stabilizing synapses, and myelinating axons. The glial cells are categorized as microglia and macroglia. Of these two cell types, which one plays an active and critical role in glutamatergic neurotransmission by providing a co-agonist required for glutamate receptor function?

microglial

 

Correct!

macroglial

 

Microglial cells are small, phagocytic cells related to peripheral macrophages.

Question 16

If a patient admits to taking his medication every other day (instead of daily, as prescribed), a potential concern would be:

A. Sufficient understanding or acceptance of the illness

 

B. Abuse of the medication

 

Correct!

C. Expense

 

D. Is the desired effect recognized at a lower daily dose? NURS 6630 Week 3: Self Assessment Quiz with 100% correct answers

 

A represents a patient taking his medication sporadically, B represents a patient taking too much medication, and D represents a patient taking a lower-than-prescribed dose but daily

Question 17

When dopamine (subtype 2) receptors are blocked in this pathway (system), it is evident by EPS.

A. Mesocortical

 

B. Tuberoinfundibular

 

Correct!

C. Nigrostriatal

 

D. Mesolimbic

 

D is associated with positive symptoms in schizophrenia, B is associated with lactation, A is associated with affect.

Question 18

Introducing adherence in facilitating treatment goals is something that would be necessary in a patient who has previously displayed nonadherence patterns.

True

 

Correct!

False

 

It is introduced as early as possible in treatment to mitigate the risks associated with nonadherence.

Question 19

A patient arrives in the ED via EMS having a grand mal seizure. The ED physician instructs the RN to give 10 milligrams of Diazepam IV X1 dose STAT. The patient’s seizure breaks within 2 minutes of the Diazepam being administered. The mechanism by which this medication causes rapid resolution of seizure activity is via which receptor type (effector pathway/receptor subtype)?

A. Slow effector pathways/G-protein coupled receptor

 

B. Slow effector pathway/ion channel

 

C. Rapid effector pathways/G-protein coupled receptor

 

Correct!

D. Rapid effector pathway/ion channel

 

Options B and C are mismatched, and Option A shows effects days to weeks after activation.

Question 20

Serotonin (5HT) is a neurotransmitter associated with mood, sleep, and psychosis. There are several serotonin receptors all over the human body. A unique aspect of the second generation antipsychotics is their ability to block 5HT2a receptors. What is the effect of this inhibition?

Correct!

A. Stabilizes dopamine concentrations in the CNS

 

B. Induces anxiety

 

C. Causes hallucinations

 

D. Reduces platelet function

 

B represents antagonism of 5HT1a, C represents a 5HT2a agonist, and D represents what happens when you inhibit SERT. NURS 6630 Week 3: Self Assessment Quiz with 100% correct answers